Geodesic implies the well-known identity 0=0

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The discussion revolves around exercise 4.8 from "Riemannian Manifolds" by John Lee, focusing on the geodesics of \(\mathbb{R}^n\) and their characterization as straight lines. The user initially concludes that the definition of a geodesic leads to the identity 0=0, indicating a misunderstanding in their calculations. After further analysis, they identify that the derivative of the identity map is 1, not 0, which resolves their confusion and confirms that geodesics in Euclidean space exhibit constant velocity.

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Fredrik
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I'm trying to do exercise 4.8 in "Riemannian manifolds" by John Lee. (It's about showing that the geodesics of \mathbb R^n are straight lines).

The result I'm getting is that the definition of a geodesic implies the well-known identity 0=0, which isn't very useful. I must have made a mistake somewhere, but I don't see it. Edit: I do now. See my edit in #3.

Lemma 4.9 defines an operator that Lee writes as Dt, but I don't see the point of that t, so I'll just call it D. Lee defines a geodesic as a curve \gamma:I\rightarrow M (where I is some intervale) such that D\dot\gamma(t)=0 for all t. The Euclidean connection is defined by \nabla_XY=XY^i\partial_i. The velocity vector field along \gamma is defined by \dot\gamma(t)=\gamma_*D_t, where Dt (not to be confused with the other D) is the operator that takes a function to its derivative at t. So the components of the velocity vector field in a coordinate system x are

\dot\gamma(t)x^i=\gamma_*Dx^i=D(x^i\circ\gamma)=(x^i\circ\gamma)'(t)

Lee writes this as \dot\gamma^i(t), so I will too. Note that since the manifold we're going to be dealing with is \mathbb R^n, we can take the coordinate system to be the identity map. The obvious definition \gamma^i=x^i\circ\gamma implies that \gamma^i'(t)=\dot\gamma(t).

Let V be an extension of \dot\gamma to a neigborhood of the image of the curve. This means that we have V_{\gamma(t)}=\dot\gamma(t).

0=D\dot\gamma(t)=\nabla_{\dot\gamma(t)} V=(\nabla_V V)_{\gamma(t)}=(VV^i\partial_i)_{\gamma(t)}=V_{\gamma(t)}V^i\partial_i|_{\gamma(t)}

The vector is only zero if its components are, so this implies

0=V_{\gamma(t)}V^i=V^j(\gamma(t))\partial_j|_{\gamma(t)}V^i

To continue we need to know that

V^i(\gamma(t))=V_{\gamma(t)}x^i=\dot\gamma(t)x^i=\dot\gamma^i(t)

and that this implies that

V^i=\dot\gamma^i\circ\gamma^{-1}

Let's continue with the main calculation. We have

0=V^j(\gamma(t))\partial_j|_{\gamma(t)}V^i=\dot\gamma^j(t)(V^i\circ x^{-1})_{,j}(x(\gamma(t))

where ",j" means the partial derivative with respect to the jth variable. We choose x to be the identity map, so the above is

=\dot\gamma^j(t)(\dot\gamma^i\circ\gamma^{-1})_{,j}(\gamma(t))=\dot\gamma^j(t)\ddot\gamma^i(t)(\gamma^{-1})_{,j}(\gamma(t))=\ddot\gamma^i(t)(\gamma^{-1}\circ\gamma)'(t)=\ddot\gamma^i(t)\cdot 0=0

:confused:
 
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Just a thought: If you work in euclidean n-space the Christoffel symbols are zero and the indicial geodesic equation simplifies to

\frac{d^2x^m}{ds^2}=0

ruling out any change of direction or speed, therefore straight lines.
 
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Thanks. That inspired me to try to calculate

\frac{d}{dt}V^i(\gamma(t))

to see what I get, and the result is

=D_t(V^i\circ\gamma)=\gamma_*D_tV^i=\dot\gamma(t)V^i=V_{\gamma(t)}V^i

which I know is =0, if the first few steps in my calculation in #1 are correct. And I also showed in #1 that V^i=\dot\gamma^i\circ\gamma^{-1}, so

0=\frac{d}{dt}V^i(\gamma(t))=\frac{d}{dt}\dot\gamma^i(t)

which implies constant velocity. I guess that completes the solution of the exercise, but I still don't see what I did wrong in #1. Hm, looks like the mistake has to be in the last line, but I still don't see it.

Edit: Found it. The derivative of the identity map t\mapsto t is 1, not 0. :smile:
 
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