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Gravity and inertia

  1. Aug 5, 2012 #1
    If force is something that changes the state of a body and inertia is opposition to change of state how can gravitational force be proportional to mass?
  2. jcsd
  3. Aug 5, 2012 #2


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    Why can't it?

    There's a fault in your logic here. It's as if you're asking "If having money is considered as wealth, then when I go in debt, why do they measure my debt in {insert currency here}?"

    Furthermore, why restrict this to just gravitational force? Are you saying that you understand why F=ma is OK for other types of forces?

  4. Aug 6, 2012 #3
    Oh!I didn't think of other forces at all.I think I get it now.Thank you.
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