Great Fun: Complex Proof using de Moivre's Theorem

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves evaluating the integral of the cosine function raised to a power, specifically \(\int_{0}^{\pi} {\cos}^{2n}\theta d\theta\), and relates to the application of de Moivre's theorem in complex analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to use de Moivre's theorem to express \(\cos^{2n}(\theta)\) in terms of complex exponentials but encounters difficulties with the integral. Other participants suggest considering the properties of even functions and the integral over a symmetric interval.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring various methods to approach the integral, including inductive reasoning and the expansion of cosine in terms of complex exponentials. Some have provided insights into the behavior of integrals involving complex exponentials, while others reflect on the ease of the problem in hindsight.

Contextual Notes

There is an emphasis on the symmetry of the cosine function and its implications for the integral's evaluation, as well as the potential challenges of proving the statement inductively.

benjyk
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Homework Statement


Show that
\int_{0}^{\pi} {\cos}^{2n}\theta d\theta = \frac{(2n)!\pi}{{2}^{2n}{(n!)}^{2}}

Homework Equations



cos n*theta = (z^n + z^-n)/2

The Attempt at a Solution



Ok, this one has kept me busy for a while. I started using de Moivre's theorem to express cos^2n(theta) in terms of multiple angles but got stuck on the integral.
After a while I tried to prove it inductively; showing it true for n=1 but then failed to show it for n=k+1.
If someone could suggest a novel way to start this problem I would be very grateful.

Benjy
 
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1) First notice that the cosine is an even function, so if you integrate over -pi to +pi, the answer is double what you want.

2) cos theta = (z + z^-1)/2, z=e^(i theta)

3) What is the integral from -pi to +pi of z^n where n is an integer (possibly negative or zero)?
 
Thanks for your reply Avodyne.

To solve it, I expressed cos^2n(theta) as (z + z^-1)^2n. This expanded to yield:
(cos(2n) + 2nC1*cos(2n-2) + ... + (2n)!/(n1)^2) / 2^2n

When integrated, all the cos's become sin's. The sine of zero or any integer multiple of 2pi will cancell, therefore the only term remaining will be (2n)!/(n1)^2) / 2^2n.

Retrospectively it seems rather easy, although it did keep me busy for a while.
 
You could also notice that \int_{-\pi}^{+\pi} e^{in\theta} d\theta is zero unless n=0, in which case it is 2pi. This skips the step of assembling the z's into cosines.

Problems are always easier in retrospect ...
 
Yes they do :)
Thanks again for the help.
 

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