- #1

Sunfire

- 221

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Hello,

Could someone help me finish this train of thought? This is how we think in SI units:

First, just because we like the value of 1 Ampere as it is now, we choose the force between two parallel conductors to be exactly

2×10[itex]^{-7}[/itex]N= const ×[itex]\frac{1A×1A}{1m}[/itex]

Then, purely as choice, we decide to formulate a constant from the above relation

μ[itex]_{0}[/itex]=4π×10[itex]^{-7}[/itex] N/A^2

Next comes the Coulomb's law. Why do we choose the Coulomb constant to involve the [itex]\epsilon_{0}[/itex] from the expression c[itex]^{2}[/itex]=[itex]\frac{1}{\epsilon_{0}\mu_{0}}[/itex]? Why not choose something else?

Is this tied to the definition of Ampere?

Thanks.

Could someone help me finish this train of thought? This is how we think in SI units:

First, just because we like the value of 1 Ampere as it is now, we choose the force between two parallel conductors to be exactly

2×10[itex]^{-7}[/itex]N= const ×[itex]\frac{1A×1A}{1m}[/itex]

Then, purely as choice, we decide to formulate a constant from the above relation

μ[itex]_{0}[/itex]=4π×10[itex]^{-7}[/itex] N/A^2

Next comes the Coulomb's law. Why do we choose the Coulomb constant to involve the [itex]\epsilon_{0}[/itex] from the expression c[itex]^{2}[/itex]=[itex]\frac{1}{\epsilon_{0}\mu_{0}}[/itex]? Why not choose something else?

Is this tied to the definition of Ampere?

Thanks.

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