frostysh
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You are again incorrect, I am saying we have reach the crucial point the investigation of which will decide who is more close to reality!Ibix said:I get the impression you are trying to imply that I'm stupid for not following your argument. Am I correct?
I will better make a picture, one moment. Just go to the outside of the house for a sec...Ibix said:No it is not. It's an extended period of time.
...and it happens the same whether you regard the source as moving with respect to the medium or the medium with respect to the source. Proof:
Let the source emit waves of period T and speed c. The medium is stationary and the source moves in the same direction as the waves at speed v. When the second wave crest is emitted, the first wave crest has traveled ##cT## and the source has moved ##vT##. Thus the wavelength is ##(c-v)T##.
Now again, but this time we regard the source as stationary and the medium as moving at speed ##-v## (i.e., we've subtracted ##v## from the speed of both medium and source). When the second wave crest is emitted, the first has traveled ##(c-v)T## and the source has not moved. Thus the wavelength is ##(c-v)T##.
No difference.
Anyway it have NO any conection to the Lorentz's transformation. Well, it's not a point, the point is thanks you for your time, this forum is indeed good in terms of users trying to help by topic at least!