Holomorphic function convergent sequence

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on the convergence of holomorphic functions and the implications of their Fourier coefficients. Specifically, the user questions the origin of the inequality |g(z)| ≥ |a_m|/2, where a_m represents the first non-zero Fourier coefficient. The user also seeks clarification on the conclusion that the function f(z) has only one zero at z=z_0, given that g(z_0) = a_m ≠ 0 and a_0 = 0. The ambiguity in the lemma regarding the conditions under which f(z_n) = 0 is highlighted as a critical point of confusion.

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Students and researchers in complex analysis, particularly those studying holomorphic functions and their properties, as well as anyone involved in mathematical proofs related to Fourier series.

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Homework Statement


[/B]
Hi

Theorem attached and proof.

canidieyet.png


I am stuck on

1) Where we get ##|g(z)|\geq |a_m|/2 ## comes from
so ##a_{m}## is the first non-zero Fourier coeffient. So I think this term is ##< |a_m|r^{m}##, from ##r## the radius of the open set, but I don't know how to take care of the rest of the higher tems through ##a_{m}## , is this some theorem or?

2) The conclusion thus ##f(z)## has only one zero at ##z=z_0##
I think I'm being stupid but what is this being made from?
We know ##g(z_0) = a_{m} \neq 0 ## and ##a_{0}=0##, but I don't understand.

Thanks

Homework Equations


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The Attempt at a Solution


above
 
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The Lemma is very badly expressed. What do you think it means by 'if ##f(z_n)=0## for any ##n##, then...'? This vague phrase could either mean
(1) ''if there exists some ##n\in\mathbb N## such that ##f(z_n)=0##, then..."
or it could mean
(2) "if for every natural number ##n##, ##f(z_n)=0##, then ..."

The two interpretations have very different consequences.
 

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