How Can I Evaluate the Infinite Series (1/y!) for y = 0 to Infinity?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the infinite series ∑ (1 / y!) from y = 0 to infinity, which is encountered in a statistics course. The original poster expresses uncertainty about how to approach the evaluation of this series.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the relationship between the series and the mathematical constant e, with some questioning the reasoning behind this identification. The original poster considers the possibility of summing the series directly to observe convergence and raises a question about substituting 1 with 1^y in the summand, leading to a discussion about the implications of infinity in this context.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the definitions and properties related to the series and the concept of infinity. Some participants provide clarifications regarding the notation and the nature of summation, while the original poster seeks further understanding of the implications of these concepts.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the definitions of convergence and the treatment of infinity in mathematical notation, with some expressing confusion about the nature of limits and the role of integers in the context of infinite series.

kingwinner
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Homework Statement


How can I compute

∑ (1 / y!) ?
y=0

Homework Equations


N/A


The Attempt at a Solution


In the middle of a problem from a statistics course, I got this series and forgot how to evaluate an infinite series in general and in particular this one...Please help!
 
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It is exp(1) or e.
 
Why? How did you get that?
 
That's just the definition of e!
 
Definition? Maybe, but not a fundamental one.

OP
Not sure why you can't just start summing it up. What do you get? You should be able to see convergence in less then 10 terms.
 
Do you know anything about Taylor's series?
 
Yes, I know Taylor series, but I've done it quite a while ago...



∑ (1 / y!)
y=0


∑ (1^y / y!) = e^1
y=0

Is the first series equal to the second one?
In other words, can I replace 1 by 1^y in the summand?
Here there is an ∞ involved, and I have heard that 1^∞ is an indeterminant form, so 1^∞ is not the same as 1. So after all can we still replace 1 by 1^y in the infinite series above?
 
No there is no "[itex]\infty[/itex]" involved. That notation only means that y takes on all non-negative integer values. It is never actually equal to infinity!
 
HallsofIvy said:
No there is no "[itex]\infty[/itex]" involved. That notation only means that y takes on all non-negative integer values. It is never actually equal to infinity!

Um...why is it never infinity?
I have no trouble understanding that 1=1^y provided that y is finite, but when y can be infinite...how can 1=1^y=1^∞?
 
  • #10
Because y has to be an integer. "infinity" is not an integer (or even a real or complex number).
[tex]\sum_{i= 0}^\infty a_i[/tex]
is defined as
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} \sum_{i=0}^n a_i[/tex]
which is a limit and also does not have i or n equal to "infinity" at any point.
 

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