How can I prove the Laplace transform of t^n step by step?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving the Laplace transform of the function \( t^n \) step by step, specifically showing that \(\int_{0}^{\infty}t^ne^{-st}dt=\frac{n!}{s^{n+1}}\) for non-negative integers \( n \).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using proof by induction as a potential method. There is an emphasis on establishing the base case and the inductive step, with some participants questioning the clarity of the language used in describing the induction process.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants providing insights into the structure of the proof and clarifying terminology. There is no explicit consensus on a single approach, but guidance on the inductive method has been offered.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of defining the base case clearly, whether it be for \( n=0 \) or \( n=1 \), and the need to clarify the assumptions made during the proof process.

Crazy Gnome
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I know the final result, its on all the charts. But I need to show step by step how to get the solution.

If someone could help out by getting me in the right direction or just plain giving me the answer, that would be much appreciated:smile:.
 
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Well probably a best way would be a proof by induction. Do you know what that is?

Edit: I'll add to this. You want to show \int_{0}^{\infty}t^ne^{-st}dt=\frac{n!}{s^{n+1}} for all non-negative integers n. To do this, first show it is true for n=0. Then assume it is true for arbitrary n, and show that it is true for n+1, ie: \int_{0}^{\infty}t^ne^{-st}dt=\frac{n!}{s^{n+1}}\rightarrow\int_{0}^{\infty}t^{n+1}e^{-st}dt=\frac{(n+1)!}{s^{n+2}}. This can easily be done with an integration by parts.
 
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nicksauce, technical point: you should say :"assume it is true for arbitrary n" because that is what you are trying to prove! What you should say is "assume it is true for a single value of n" and then show it is true for n+1. I personally prefer to say "assume it is true for some k" so as not to confuse the specific value with the general value.

Crazy Gnome, the step from n to n+ 1 (or k to k+1) should be easy to do using integration by parts. Oh, and, of course, you need to show it is true for n= 1 or n= 0 depending on whether you are talking about all natural numbers or all whole numbers.
 
HallsofIvy said:
nicksauce, technical point: you should say :"assume it is true for arbitrary n" because that is what you are trying to prove! What you should say is "assume it is true for a single value of n" and then show it is true for n+1. I personally prefer to say "assume it is true for some k" so as not to confuse the specific value with the general value.

Yes, you're right. I meant to say "an arbitrary n" but left out the "an". And yes, using 'k' is indeed much more clear.
 

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