How Can I Prove the Second Equation from the First in a Random Walk Probability?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around proving a mathematical relationship in the context of random walks, specifically how to derive the second equation from the first using properties of the increments, which are defined as i.i.d. random variables taking values -1 and +1. The focus is on finding a rigorous proof rather than an intuitive understanding.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant expresses uncertainty about how to derive the second equation rigorously, suggesting that the i.i.d. nature of the increments might be relevant.
  • Another participant asserts that since all increments have the same distribution, renumbering the indices does not affect the outcome.
  • A participant questions whether a rigorous proof exists for the claim made about the distribution of the increments.
  • One participant introduces a lemma stating that the joint distribution of two random variables can be exchanged, providing a probabilistic argument for the equivalence of the distributions when indices are switched.
  • Another participant elaborates on the implications of the i.i.d. assumption, explaining that it allows for the exchange of marginal and joint probability statements, which could support the argument for the equivalence of the two equations.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the relevance of the i.i.d. property in the context of the proof, but there is no consensus on the existence of a rigorous proof or the necessity of additional details to establish it.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the dependence on the definitions of i.i.d. random variables and the implications for joint probability statements, but does not resolve the specific mathematical steps needed for the proof.

jakey
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Hi guys,

I was reading about random walks and i encountered one step of a proof which i don't know how to derive in a mathematically rigorous way.

the problem is in the attached file and S is a random walk with X_i as increments, X_i =
{-1,+1}

I know that intuitively we can switch the indices to obtain the second equation from the first but how do we prove it rigorously?

EDIT: btw, I am just looking for hints, not the entire solution. i think one of the possible hints is that the X_i's are i.i.d. but i can't think of a way to use this
 

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Since all X_i have the same distribution renumbering the indices makes no difference.
 
hi mathman, thanks btw! so there's no rigorous proof for this?
 
I don't what you need to make it rigorous.
 
Mathman's lemma: (X1,X2) has the same distribution as (X2,X1).

Proof: P[X1<=x1,X2<=x2] = P[X1<=x1]P[X2<=x2] = P[X2<=x1]P[X1<=x2] = P[X2<=x1,X1<=x2]
 
You started with the assumption that the Xi's were iid. Part of the definition of iid is that they are identical - that is, every marginal probability statement for one variable can be exchanged for any probability statement about another. The other bard of the definition of iid is that they are independent. This fact allows us to extend the above from marginal probability statements to any arbitrary joint probability statement.
 

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