How can I prove this elegant equation I discovered using Wolfram Alpha?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around an equation discovered by a participant while using Wolfram Alpha, specifically the relationship between the sum of the series and the integral of a function. Participants explore methods of proving the equation and share resources related to it.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • A participant presents the equation sum(1/n^n,n,1,inf)=integral(1/x^x,x,0,1) and expresses a desire to prove it, noting the lack of known anti-derivatives for 1/x^x.
  • Another participant suggests consulting a Wikipedia article for further information.
  • Some participants express feelings of inadequacy regarding their understanding of the equation and its proof, while others reassure them that the result is not obvious and that the derivation is non-trivial.
  • A participant mentions finding a simpler proof related to the "sophomore's dream" function, which they discovered through additional research.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree that the equation is interesting and not straightforward to prove. However, there is no consensus on the best approach to proving it, and multiple resources are suggested without a definitive resolution.

Contextual Notes

Some participants reference external literature and articles, indicating that there may be varying levels of understanding and accessibility to the proofs discussed. The complexity of the derivation and the nature of the equation itself are acknowledged as potential limitations in the discussion.

Who May Find This Useful

This discussion may be of interest to individuals exploring advanced mathematical concepts, particularly those related to series and integrals, as well as those looking for resources on proofs in mathematics.

superadvanced
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Playing around with Wolfram Alpha I discovered an elegant looking little equation. Judging by the decimal approximation of both sides, there seems to be an extremely high probability that it is true. A picture of the equation is attached but ill try to type it too:

sum(1/n^n,n,1,inf)=integral(1/x^x,x,0,1)

My question is does anyone know how to go about showing this? Wolfram doesn't have much to say about either side of the equation other than decimal approximations. Obviously there is no known anti-derivative for 1/x^x. Thoughts?
 

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You may wish to look at the "[URL Dream[/url] article in Wikipedia.
 
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wow that's really simple. i feel stupid.
 
superadvanced said:
wow that's really simple. i feel stupid.

Why feel stupid? It's not an obvious result by any means. The derivation in the linked wikipedia article isn't trivial either. Straightforward if you know what to do, maybe, but not simple enough to feel stupid for not thinking of it.

You found something neat. Don't feel bad that you couldn't prove it. Maybe next time you find something neat you will be able to prove it (even if it is still the case that someone else has proved it previously).
 
Mute said:
Why feel stupid? It's not an obvious result by any means. The derivation in the linked wikipedia article isn't trivial either. Straightforward if you know what to do, maybe, but not simple enough to feel stupid for not thinking of it.

You found something neat. Don't feel bad that you couldn't prove it. Maybe next time you find something neat you will be able to prove it (even if it is still the case that someone else has proved it previously).

lol I don't understand the wiki proof but there was a much simpler proof I found when googling sophomore's dream. Its on wolfram math world.
 

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