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In Feynman Lectures on Physics (you can find it online), chapter 33 of volume 1, the author derives Fresnel's formulas for the coefficient of reflection in an unusual way by making considerations about the different possible polarization of light. In this way he derives the squares of the amplitudes of the reflected waves. When it comes to find the amplitude itself he says that it is possible to show by similar arguments that it must be real by considering two light rays coming from both sides of a glass surface simultaneously (he says that it is fun to analyze theoretically, I don't Know what does he mean by fun xD). I tried to use the same arguments to find the equations and then let the amplitude of one of the waves go to 0 to retrieve the original Solution, and I find indeed that the amplitude is the same, although I haven't yet managed to show it is the same derived by Feynman because of the horrible algebra. However I'm far from being sure that I've done everything alright so I wanted to ask if anybody knows How did the author mean to show it. Thank you in advance