How can integration by parts be used to prove the Dirac delta function?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the use of integration by parts to prove properties of the Dirac delta function, specifically focusing on its derivatives and their integrals. The original poster attempts to understand how to apply integration by parts in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the assignment of variables in integration by parts, questioning the choice of 'u' and 'dv'. There is also a focus on understanding why certain terms vanish in the integration process.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes attempts to clarify the integration by parts process and the behavior of the delta function at infinity. Some participants provide insights into the conditions under which terms go to zero, indicating a productive exploration of the topic.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of understanding the properties of the delta function and its derivatives, particularly in relation to their behavior as generalized functions. There is an acknowledgment of the need for clarity on definitions and assumptions surrounding the delta function.

zandria
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1. The problem statement
Show that:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) \delta^{(n)}(x-a) dx = (-1)^n f^{(n)}(a)

The Attempt at a Solution


I am trying to understand how to prove:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) \delta '(x) dx =- f'(x)
I know that we need to use integration by parts, but I'm looking for a more detailed explanation of how to use integration by parts (what is u and what is dv?). I think if I understand this, then I will be able to apply this to the problem above.
 
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u is f(x), dv is \delta'(x) dx.
 
I think you left out a minus sign. There's only one thing there than can be 'u' and only one thing that can be 'dv'.
 
thank you, i did leave out a minus sign. I will correct that above. Also, I think I was trying to make things more complicated than they actually are. But why does the first term when doing integration by parts go to zero?

\boxed{[f(x)\delta(x)]_{-\infty}^{\infty}} - \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f'(x)\delta(x) dx
 
zandria said:
I am trying to understand how to prove the simple statement:
\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) \delta '(x) dx =- f'(x)
I thought it was a definition of delta-function derivative... could someone tell me if I'm wrong?
 
zandria said:
But why does the first term when doing integration by parts go to zero?
All that is necessary for the first term to go to zero is that delta goes to zero faster than f goes to infinity. How fast does delta go to zero?
 
delta tends to zero very quickly when x does not equal a (which is zero in this case) by definition of the generalized function . If that's right, then I think I get it. Thank you for your help.
 
zandria said:
delta tends to zero very quickly when x does not equal a (which is zero in this case) by definition of the generalized function . If that's right, then I think I get it. Thank you for your help.
Yes, that is correct. delta of x thuds to zero immediately x leaves 0, long before x gets to infinity.
 

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