How Can Taylor Series Approximate Second Derivatives?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around using Taylor series to approximate the second derivative of a function, specifically focusing on the expression involving the function values at points \(x+h\) and \(x-h\). The original poster is tasked with proving a specific approximation and is exploring the relationship between Taylor series and finite difference methods.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to derive the second derivative using Taylor series expansions and is exploring how to manipulate the resulting expressions to match a given form. Some participants suggest clarifying the meaning of the approximation symbol and recommend writing out the Taylor series for the relevant function values. Others inquire about the interpretation of error terms in the context of the approximation.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing guidance on how to approach the derivation and clarification on the meaning of error terms. There is no explicit consensus yet, as participants are exploring different aspects of the problem and its implications.

Contextual Notes

The original poster is working under specific homework constraints that require proving the approximation and analyzing error terms, which may not be fully understood by all participants.

thenewbosco
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I am supposed to prove using taylor series the following:

[tex]\frac{d^2\Psi}{dx^2} \approx \frac{1}{h^2}[\Psi (x+h) - 2\Psi(x) + \Psi (x-h)][/tex] where x is the point where the derivative is evaluated and h is a small quantity.

what i have done is used:
[itex]f(x+h)= f(x) + f'(x) h + f''(x)\frac{h^2}{2!}+...[/itex]

and solved so that

[tex]f''(x)=\frac{2}{h^2}[f(x+h) - f(x) - f'(x) h][/tex]

i am not sure how to get this into the required form..
I noticed that solving the given equation for [tex]\Psi(x)[/tex] gives a term that looks like [tex]\frac{\Psi(x+h) + \Psi(x-h)}{2}[/tex] i.e. average value on the interval, can this be somehow used to write as a derivative or something?

thanks
 
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First, you should be clearer about what you mean by "[itex]\approx[/itex]". Once you sort that out, write out the first few terms of the Taylor series for f(x), f(x+h), f(x-h). Now can you find a linear combination of these expressions such that the coefficient of f(x) and f'(x) is zero, while that of f''(x) is 1?

If you don't care about deriving the identity, only verifiying it, then just plug in the first few terms of the taylor series into the RHS of the first expression.
 
i have proven this but the second part says, find the highest valued term representing the error in this.

i do not understand what this refers to or what this means, any clarification?
 
When you plug in the taylor series to that approximation of f''(x), there will be extra terms that don't cancel. What is the smallest power of h left over? (this will be the biggest error term, since h is very small)
 

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