How can the R.H.S. of a hyperbolic function be manipulated to match the L.H.S.?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around manipulating the right-hand side (R.H.S.) of a hyperbolic function to match the left-hand side (L.H.S.). Participants are exploring the use of hyperbolic identities and the concept of mathematical induction in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the potential use of induction and direct methods for proving the equality of the hyperbolic expressions. Some suggest expressing hyperbolic functions in terms of exponential functions as a starting point.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of different methods to approach the problem, with some participants advocating for direct algebraic manipulation while others mention induction. No consensus has been reached, but several productive lines of reasoning are being examined.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express confusion about the concept of induction and its applicability to the problem. There is also mention of specific values, such as setting n=2, to simplify the discussion.

DryRun
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Homework Statement
http://s1.ipicture.ru/uploads/20111203/B1Ax1OcU.jpg

Frankly, I've been sitting staring at that problem for long enough, and it just can't be solved through the direct use of the standard hyperbolic identities. I need a hint.
 
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Use induction.
 
That's a long shot... I just started this topic so I'm very new to it and i have no idea what induction means either. Can you elaborate a little?
 
sharks said:
Homework Statement
http://s1.ipicture.ru/uploads/20111203/B1Ax1OcU.jpg

Frankly, I've been sitting staring at that problem for long enough, and it just can't be solved through the direct use of the standard hyperbolic identities. I need a hint.

Really? Have you tried expressing cosh x and sinh x in terms of e^x and e^(-x)?

No need for induction. This is a simple direct proof. And induction only covers non-negative integral n, whereas you can more easily prove the general result for all complex n directly.
 
Last edited:
See our proofs FAQ: https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=523874 for a discussion on induction.

To make it simpler, try and set n=2. Can you prove it for n=2?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
No, no induction needed. Just put in the definition of cosh and sinh in terms of exponentials.
 
Indeed, induction seems the most elegant proof.
 
Alright, what is induction??
 
sharks said:
Alright, what is induction??

Read the link I posted above. Or check your textbook.
 
  • #10
sharks said:
Alright, what is induction??

Have you tried the direct method? Start by expressing sinh and cosh as exponentials, then it's just algebra!
 
  • #11
First, I've expressed the L.H.S into two parts:
(coshx + sinhx)^n and (coshx - sinhx)^n

For the first one:
(coshx + sinhx)^n = e^(nx)

For the second one:
(coshx - sinhx)^n = e^(-nx)

I am aware that i somehow need to bring that power n down, but can't see how.
 
  • #12
Now do the same with the RHS
 
  • #13
For the R.H.S. i split it into 2 parts:

(cosh nx + sinh nx) and (cosh nx - sinh nx)

(cosh nx + sinh nx) = [e^(nx) + e^(-nx)]/2 + [e^(nx) - e^(-nx)]/2 = [e^(nx)]/2

(cosh nx - sinh nx) = [e^(nx) + e^(-nx)]/2 - [e^(nx) - e^(-nx)]/2 = [e^(-nx)]/2

OK, i see it now. They are both the same. It did not occur to me that i had to tinker with the R.H.S also, as normally, i should have been able to get the R.H.S. using only the L.H.S.
 

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