Solving Hyperbolic Functions: cothx - \frac{1}{x}

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around hyperbolic functions, specifically focusing on the expression involving coth(x) and the relationship between xcoth(x) and coth(x) - 1/x. Participants are exploring a "show that" type of problem within this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to demonstrate the equality of xcoth(x) and coth(x) - 1/x but expresses uncertainty about the steps needed to achieve this. Other participants question the validity of this equality by evaluating it at specific values, such as x = 1, and point out inconsistencies.

Discussion Status

The discussion has revealed differing interpretations of the original poster's claim, with some participants suggesting that the proposed equality is not true. There is an ongoing exploration of the steps taken and the reasoning behind them, with some participants offering corrections and insights into the original poster's calculations.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of a homework problem, which may limit the information available and the assumptions that can be made. The original poster's confidence in their initial steps contrasts with the skepticism expressed by others regarding the validity of the conclusion.

Brewer
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[SOLVED] Hyperbolic functions

As part of a long winded "show that" question I've ended up at the point where I have [tex]xcothx[/tex] and I want to show that this is equal to [tex]cothx - \frac{1}{x}[/tex] only I have no ideas how to get there. I can't see any reason why this should be so, but I'm pretty confident that I'm correct so far (in fact I know I am!).

Obviously I could take the "magic step" when doing this kind of question (in that I could just write the final answer down, and hope that I'm close enough for this step to be intuitive) but I'd quite like to know the step to take.

Thanks in advance guys.
 
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erm … when x = 1, xcothx = coth1, but cothx - 1/x = coth1 - 1 … so they're not equal. :frown:

How did you get to that position?
 
Well, you aren't going to be able to prove that because it pretty obviously isn't true. In particular, you would be proving, taking x= 1, that coth(1)= coth(1)- 1 which can't be true.
 
Meh, so the guy I checked my working with up until now is wrong.

So what I did is
[tex] U=-\frac{d(lnZ)}{d\beta}[/tex]
[tex]=-\frac{1}{z}\frac{dZ}{d\beta}[/tex]
[tex]=\frac{-\beta \mu B}{sinh(\beta \mu B)}(\mu Bcosh(\beta \mu B)[/tex]
[tex]=-\frac{\mu ^2 B^2 \beta cosh(\beta \mu B)}{sinh(\beta \mu B)[/tex]
[tex]=-\mu B(\beta \mu Bcoth(\beta \mu B)[/tex]where [tex]Z = \frac{sinh(\beta \mu B)}{\beta \mu B}[/tex]

Are there problems with what I've done then?
 
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I've tried to correct the latex, but if it hasnt come out properly then the line that's gone wrong is the unfactorised form of the final line
 
Solved. Helps when you remember your quotient rule
 

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