How Can You Prove (ab,c) = 1 Given (a,c) and (b,c) Are Both 1?

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that if the greatest common divisor of two pairs of integers, (a,c) and (b,c), is 1, then the greatest common divisor of the product ab and c is also 1. The context is rooted in number theory, specifically in the properties of divisibility and greatest common divisors.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss using the existence of integers that satisfy certain linear combinations to establish relationships between the variables. There is exploration of contradictions arising from prime divisors and their implications on the factors a and b.

Discussion Status

The discussion has progressed with participants validating certain steps and reasoning, particularly regarding the implications of prime divisors and the relationships between a, b, and c. Some participants express uncertainty about how to rigorously present their findings, indicating a need for clarity in the proof structure.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the assumption that the definitions of greatest common divisors and properties of integers apply. There is a focus on ensuring that all steps in the reasoning are logically sound and clearly articulated.

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Homework Statement



If (a,c) = 1 and (b,c) = 1, prove that (ab,c) = 1. Note that (x,y) refers to the greatest common divisor between x and y.

2. The attempt at a solution

There is a theorem that says since (a,c) = 1, there exist integers u and v such that au + cv = 1. Likewise, there also exist integers p and q such that bp + cq = 1. How though, could that be tied to the proof's conclusion, that there exist integers m and n such that (ab)m + cn = 1? Thanks all!
 
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OK, let's do this from the definitions. Let p be a prime such that p divides ab and c. Can you reach a contradiction?
 
Maybe, if p divides ab and c, then there is an x and y such that px = ab and py = c. Now substituting into au + cv = 1 gives (px/b)u + (py)v = p(xu/b + yv) = 1. If (xu/b + yv) is an integer, is this a contradiction?
 
If p divides ab, can you show that p divides either a or b?
 
I think so; if px = ab, then p(x/b) = a, meaning p divides a?
 
Undoubtedly0 said:
I think so; if px = ab, then p(x/b) = a, meaning p divides a?

Not necessarily as you don't know that x/b is an integer.
 
Ah! Okay, if py = c, then since au + cv = 1, substituting gives au + (py)v = au + p(yv) = 1, which means (a,p) = 1. It could be done similarly to show (b,p) = 1. Is this correct?
 
Undoubtedly0 said:
Ah! Okay, if py = c, then since au + cv = 1, substituting gives au + (py)v = au + p(yv) = 1, which means (a,p) = 1. It could be done similarly to show (b,p) = 1. Is this correct?

Yes, this is already correct.
 
micromass said:
Yes, this is already correct.

Sorry, what do you mean? Do you mean to say that this is the end of the proof?
 
  • #10
Undoubtedly0 said:
Sorry, what do you mean? Do you mean to say that this is the end of the proof?

No, I'm saying that what you done is correct.
 
  • #11
Okay, so I assume from there it must be true that p cannot divide ab, thus a contradiction. But how would you suggest writing this out in a rigorous manner?
 
  • #12
Ah, this works:

ax + cy = 1 (1)

bw + cz = 1 (2)

Multiplying (2) by 'a' gives

abw + cz = a (3)

and substituting (3) into (1) gives

(abw + cz)x + cy = ab(w) + c(azx + y) = 1

meaning (ab,c) = 1.
 

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