How do I convert angular speed to revolution

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To convert angular speed from radians per second to revolutions per second, divide the angular speed by 2π, since one revolution equals 2π radians. The discussion involves a problem where a diver's moment of inertia changes while performing revolutions. The diver makes four complete revolutions in one second while tucked, and the question asks how many revolutions would occur in three seconds if she hadn't tucked. To solve this, one must understand the relationship between angular speed, moment of inertia, and the conservation of angular momentum. The key takeaway is the conversion method and the importance of moment of inertia in rotational motion scenarios.
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Homework Statement


I need to know how to convert angular speed into revolutions


Homework Equations



W=2*pi/60 sec, but that's for rad over second

The Attempt at a Solution



w=2*pif
 
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I assume you mean that you'd like to convert angular speed in radians per second into revolutions per second. You'll want to use the fact that 2\pi radians equals one revolution. Does that help?
 
Im a bit confused. I am working on a problem for linear momentum where I need to find the final angular speed, which was .8. But now I need to convert into revolutions. My t=3.0s
 
I'm not quite sure what your asking for. You have an angular speed in radians per second, correct? Are you trying to convert this value into relovutions per second, or are you trying to find the angualr displacement? You may want to post the problem.
 
Ok, this is the problem:A diver comes off a spring board with arms straight up and legs straight down, giving her a moment of inertia about her rotation axis of 36 kgm^2. She then tucks into a small ball decreasing this moment of inertia of 7.2kgm^2. While tucked she makes four complete revoutions in 1.0s. If she hasnt tucked at all, how many revoultions woudl she have made in the 3.0s from board to water?
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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