How do I evaluate this integral?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating integrals in the context of wave equations in three-dimensional space, specifically involving the notation and boundaries of integration in the expression provided by the original poster.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Exploratory

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the meaning of the integration boundary and the notation used, with some attempting to clarify the roles of the variables involved. There are discussions about the implications of the integrals in describing wave solutions rather than just evaluating them. Questions arise regarding the behavior of the wave amplitude and the conditions under which it vanishes.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, raising questions about the interpretation of the integrals and the physical meaning behind them. Some have offered clarifications on the boundaries and the nature of the wave function, while others express uncertainty about their evaluations and seek further understanding.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the integration domain and the assumptions about the functions involved. Some participants express concern about the implications of their findings, particularly regarding the behavior of the wave amplitude at specific times.

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Homework Statement
How do I evaluate this integral?
Relevant Equations
Kirchhoff's formula
$$u(t,x)=\frac{1}{4\pi t}\int_{||y-x||=t}h(y)dS(y)+\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\Big[\frac{1}{4\pi t}\int_{||y-x||=t}g(y)dS(y)\Big]$$
The goal is to evaluate the below integrals. Please note ##x\in \mathbb{R}^3##

The issue is that I do not understand the meaning of the integration boundary ##||y-x||=t## and the meaning of the notation ##dS(y)##. Would someone be kind to explain these notations to me like I am five? are ##x## and ##y## both in ##\mathbb{R}^3##? what is the equality with ##t## doing in the integral?
Thank you.

$$u(t,x)=\frac{1}{4\pi t}\int_{||y-x||=t}h(y)dS(y)+\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\Big[\frac{1}{4\pi t}\int_{||y-x||=t}g(y)dS(y)\Big]$$
where
$$g(y)=h(y)=exp(-\frac{1}{1-y^2})$$ over the unit disk
and ##0## else
 
Last edited:
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##x## is the input of the function, so is constant. ##y## is the variable you are integrating over. ##t## is also a constant, so ##||y-x||=t## is integrating over the region of ##y## which is constant distance from ##x##, i.e. a sphere of radius t centered at x.
 
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After trying to evaluate this integral last night, I think maybe my professor did not want us to evaluate the integrals, But to understand how the integrals describe a 3D wave solution. Thank you! @Office_Shredder
 
I think that according to the formula, ##u(t,x,y,z)## is a function that describes the amplitude of the wave at position ##(x,y,z)## for all times t. At time ##t=0## the wave is confined to the unit ball and described by the function ##exp(−\frac{1}{1−r^2})##. The wave propagates outwards as t increases, and is contained by larger and larger spherical shells centered at the origin. At an arbitrary point ##(x_0,y_0,z_0)## outside of the unit ball, the amplitude of the wave is zero at all times except for one special time the wave passes through.

My professor tells me that it is possible to show that the wave vanishes outside of the spherical shell ##\{x\in\mathbb{R}^3|t−1≤||x||≤t+1\}##.

I tried to evaluate Kirchoff's formula, and frankly I feel embarrassed about my work, and hesitated posting this here. But I very much I want to learn and get better at math.

@Orodruin

@Office_Shredder

$$u(t,x)=\frac{1}{4\pi t}\int_{||r-x||=t}h(r)dS(r)+\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\Big[\frac{1}{4\pi t}\int_{||r-x||=t}g(r)dS(r)\Big]$$
Plug in ##h(r)##, ##g(r)## and make a change of boundaries ##r\Rightarrow r+x##
$$\frac{1}{4\pi t}\int_{||r||=t}exp\Big(-\frac{1}{1-(r+x)^2}\Big)dS(r)+\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\Big[\frac{1}{4\pi t}\int_{||r||=t}exp\Big(-\frac{1}{1-(r+x)^2}\Big)dS(r)\Big]$$
$$=\frac{1}{16\pi^2 t}\int_0^\pi \int_0^{2\pi}exp\Big(-\frac{1}{1-(r+x)^2}\Big)sin\phi d\theta d\phi$$$$+\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\Big[\frac{1}{16\pi^2 t}\int_0^\pi \int_0^{2\pi} exp\Big(-\frac{1}{1-(r+x)^2}\Big)sin\phi d\theta d\phi \Big]$$
$$=exp\Big(-\frac{1}{1-(r+x)^2}\Big)\Big[\frac{1}{4\pi t}+\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\Big(\frac{1}{4\pi t} \Big)\Big]$$
$$=exp\Big(-\frac{1}{1-(r+x)^2}\Big)\frac{t-4\pi}{16\pi^2 t^2}$$

The solution does not make sense because says the wave has negative amplitude at the origin at ##t<4π## and nears ##0## for ##t>4π##.
 
Last edited:
I am so sorry about the latex format issues. Post updated.
 
You seem to just have inserted the expression for the bump function for when its argument is < 1, but the integration domain is not necessarily restricted to this region.
 
thank you @Orodruin for the clear advice on the boundary. So I re-evaluated the integrals over the unit ball centered at the origin, and got the same answer because I used this method of spherical means (at the bottom of first page in the linked Stanford document) that does not take the radius of the ball into account. That is truly strange to think the spherical average does not depend on the radius, surely the document must contain an error?
 

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