How do I prove this logic rule with Boolean algebra?

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Mason98
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Homework Statement
Boolean algebra help
Relevant Equations
A.(a+b) = a
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Hello, can anyone help how i prove this logic rule? I am not sure whether i have to draw a digital circuit or something. if someone could help me solve it showing the steps they took i'd appreciate thanks
 
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What do you get when you use the distributive property here?

PS: Forum rules require you to show your attempt at a solution. We can only help by providing hints and pointing mistakes in your work.
 
cnh1995 said:
What do you get when you use the distributive property here?

PS: Forum rules require you to show your attempt at a solution. We can only help by providing hints and pointing mistakes in your work.
I thought it could possibly be A.B + A.C but I am not sure tbh
 
Mason98 said:
I thought it could possibly be A.B + A.C but I am not sure tbh
Where is C in that expression?
 
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A.A + A.B i mean sorry, thanks for the help, i tried multiplying the brackets out
 
Mason98 said:
A.A + A.B i mean sorry
Right.

You need to use the laws of boolean algebra to simplify this expression. The distributive property was one of these laws. How will you reduce this further?
Can you find anything in your lecture notes?
 
cnh1995 said:
Right.

You need to use the laws of boolean algebra to simplify this expression. The distributive property was one of these laws. How will you reduce this further?
Can you find anything in your lecture notes?
Would i now use the Idempotent Law, which would change A.A to just A which would leave me with A +A.B and the A.B would change to B.A, so A + B.A ?
 
Mason98 said:
Would i now use the Idempotent Law, which would change A.A to just A which would leave me with A +A.B?
Right.
Then?
 
Mason98 said:
and the A.B would change to B.A, so A + B.A ?
No need to change A.B to B.A.

Hint (if you haven't got the next step yet): A=A.1
 
cnh1995 said:
No need to change A.B to B.A.

Hint (if you haven't got the next step yet): A=A.1
Hmm thanks for the help by the way appreciate it :), I'm thinking it could be, A.1 + A.B?
 
Mason98 said:
Hmm thanks for the help by the way appreciate it :), I'm thinking it could be, A.1 + A.B?
Now factor the expression, using the reverse of the distributive law. What do you get?
 
Mark44 said:
Now factor the expression, using the reverse of the distributive law. What do you get?
A.(1+B)?
 
Mason98 said:
A.(1+B)?
Right, and how can ##1 + B## be simplified? Remember that + is used for OR, so in terms of sets, this would be ##U \cup B##, where U is the universal set.
 
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1 + B is basically 1 or B? So, it can be simplified down to just 1? I'm so confused
 
Mason98 said:
1 + B is basically 1 or B? So, it can be simplified down to just 1? I'm so confused

Yes it can. If you think about the logic table for the expression [itex]1 + B[/itex], what is the outcome if [itex]B = 1[/itex]? What if [itex]B = 0[/itex]? Does it matter what [itex]B[/itex] is? That should help prove to you the identity [itex]X + 1 = 1[/itex] for a boolean variable [itex]X[/itex].

Another method when facing these problems is to use a Karnaugh map. These help when the logical expressions become more complex.
 
Do you know how to make a logic table. If so, you should make one and if you have trouble, show your work.