How do you prove that a function is surjective?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that a function is surjective, specifically focusing on the function f(x) = x^3 with both domain and codomain as the set of all integers (Z). Participants explore the definition of surjectivity and the requirements for demonstrating that every element in the codomain has a corresponding preimage in the domain.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various methods to prove surjectivity, including the need to show that for every element y in the codomain, there exists an x in the domain such that f(x) = y. Questions arise about specific values, such as whether there exists an integer x such that f(x) = 2.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with some participants expressing confusion about their previous conclusions regarding the surjectivity of the function. Clarifications have been provided about the requirements for proving surjectivity, and there is acknowledgment of the need for further understanding.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted discrepancy between the original poster's conclusion and their teacher's feedback regarding the surjectivity of the function, indicating a potential misunderstanding of the definition or requirements for surjectivity in the context of integer values.

sara_87
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how do you prove that a function is surjective ?

i know that surjective means it is an onto function, and (i think) surjective functions have an equal range and codomain?
 
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There are lots of ways one might go about doing it. The most direct is to prove every element in the codomain has at least one preimage. i.e. for a function [itex]f:X \to Y[/itex], to show

[tex]\forall y \in Y :\exists x \in X: f(x) = y[/tex]
 
how can i prove if f(x)= x^3, where the domain and the codomain are both the set of all integers: Z, is surjective or otherwise...the thing is, when i do the prove it comes out to be surjective but my teacher said that it isn't.

this is what i did:

y=x^3

and i said that that y belongs to Z and x^3 belong to Z so it is surjective

this is obviously wrong, but i don't know what I'm doing wrong!
 
Because, to repeat what I said, you need to show for every y, there exists an x such that f(x) = y!


You claim f is surjective -- that means (for example) that you can find an x such that f(x) = 2.
 
'Because, to repeat what I said, you need to show for every y, there exists an x such that f(x) = y!'
okay, easy! lol
i read that ten thousand times already! just give it time to sink in...okay it has sunk in

i guess it is not surjective then...thanx for opening up my eyes
 
Does there exist x in Z such that, for example, f(x)= x3= 2?
 

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