How Does Poisson Distribution Calculate Robot Breakdown Probabilities?

  • Thread starter Thread starter akito458
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Poisson
akito458
Messages
6
Reaction score
0
Poisson Distrobution-HELP! URGENT!

the problem:

The Breakdowns of a robot follow a Poisson Dist. with an avg of .5 breakdowns per 8-hour workday. If this robot is placed in service at the beginning of the day, find the probability that:

a. It will break down durring the day.
b. It will work for at least 4 hours without breakdown
c. Does what happened the day before have any effect on your answers? why?

I'm a newb to probability and am I'm haveing trouble figuring out where to begin. I know that the rate(lamda) has something to do with the percent of break downs and the work day. Is it .5*workday or just .5. I just don't know where to begin with this problem. :cry:
 
Physics news on Phys.org
i know that P{X >= a } = e^(-גa) where ג is lamda, would P{ X < a } = -e^(-גa)?
 
Well the answer to a. is

P{ X < a } = e^(-גa)
= e^(-0.5)
= 0.6065

where ג = 0.5 <- the rate equals lamda

Since P{ X >= a } = 1 - ( 1 - e^( גa ) ) = e^(-גa)

right?
 
i need help on b
 
anybody...
 
Answer

akito458 said:
the problem:

The Breakdowns of a robot follow a Poisson Dist. with an avg of .5 breakdowns per 8-hour workday. If this robot is placed in service at the beginning of the day, find the probability that:

a. It will break down durring the day.
b. It will work for at least 4 hours without breakdown
c. Does what happened the day before have any effect on your answers? why?

I'm a newb to probability and am I'm haveing trouble figuring out where to begin. I know that the rate(lamda) has something to do with the percent of break downs and the work day. Is it .5*workday or just .5. I just don't know where to begin with this problem. :cry:


A Poisson Process is a counting process; in your case define a success or occurrence when a breakdown happends. The probability of having n breakdowns within a period of time t is: P{N(t)=n}=exp(-lamda*t)*(lamda*t)^n/n!
In this case lamda = 0.5 breakdowns/day (since a day has 8 hours of work. Also, we can express lamda per hour as lamda = 0.5/8 = 1/16 breakdowns/hour.

a. It will break down during the day.
Here we can look for the probability of having a breakdown in a day (8 hours period), then P{N(1) >= 1} = 1 - P{N(1) < 1} = 1 - P{N(1) = 0} = 1 - exp(-0.5)
Or if we look for the probability that the first breakdown occurs within 8 hours; let say X1 is a random variable representing the interarrival time or interarrival occurrence time of breakdowns. By definition the interarrival times are ~Exponential, f(t) = lamda*exp(-lamda*t), 0 <= t < infinity
Then P{X1 <= 8} = 1 - exp[-(0.5/8)*8] = 1 - exp(-0.5)

b. It will work for at least 4 hours without breakdown.
Here we look for the probability of no breakdown in at least 4 hours, or a breakdown in at most 4 hours.
P{N(4) = 0} = exp[-(0.5/8)*4]
P{X1 > 4} = 1 - P{X1 <= 4} = exp[-(0.5/8)*4]

I hope it helps.
 
Last edited:
Namaste & G'day Postulate: A strongly-knit team wins on average over a less knit one Fundamentals: - Two teams face off with 4 players each - A polo team consists of players that each have assigned to them a measure of their ability (called a "Handicap" - 10 is highest, -2 lowest) I attempted to measure close-knitness of a team in terms of standard deviation (SD) of handicaps of the players. Failure: It turns out that, more often than, a team with a higher SD wins. In my language, that...
Hi all, I've been a roulette player for more than 10 years (although I took time off here and there) and it's only now that I'm trying to understand the physics of the game. Basically my strategy in roulette is to divide the wheel roughly into two halves (let's call them A and B). My theory is that in roulette there will invariably be variance. In other words, if A comes up 5 times in a row, B will be due to come up soon. However I have been proven wrong many times, and I have seen some...
Back
Top