How Does Quantum Mechanics Describe Free-Particle Probability Amplitudes?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem from introductory quantum mechanics concerning free-particle probability amplitudes. The original poster attempts to show a relationship between the wave function in position space and momentum space using integrals and Fourier transforms.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster has substituted an equation into their attempt but expresses uncertainty about the next steps, indicating a need for further manipulation. Some participants question the nature of the transformation involved, specifically whether it constitutes a Fourier transform.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring the implications of the Plancherel theorem and the nature of the Fourier transform in this context. There is a focus on understanding the relationship between the wave function and its momentum representation, but no consensus has been reached yet.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through the mathematical framework of quantum mechanics, particularly the properties of wave functions and their transformations. The original poster indicates a lack of knowledge regarding certain manipulations needed to progress in the problem.

rar0308
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Problem10.1, Introductory QM,Liboff.

Homework Statement


If [itex]\psi (\mathbf{r},t)[/itex] is a free-particle state and [itex]b(\mathbf{k},t)[/itex] the momentum probability amplitude for this same state, show that
[itex]\iiint \psi^* \psi d \mathbf{r}[/itex]=[itex]\iiint b^* b d \mathbf{k}[/itex]

Homework Equations



[itex]\psi_\mathbf{k} (\mathbf{r},t) = Ae^{i(\mathbf{k} \cdot \mathbf{r} - \omega t)}[/itex] (10.14)
[itex]\hbar \omega = E_k[/itex]
[itex]\delta (\mathbf{r} - \mathbf{r'}) = \frac{1}{(2 \pi)^3} \iiint e^{i \mathbf{k} \cdot (\mathbf{r} - \mathbf{r'})} d \mathbf{k}[/itex] (10.20)
[itex]d \mathbf{k} = dk_x dk_y dk_z[/itex]
[itex]\psi (\mathbf{r},t)[/itex]=[itex]\frac{1}{(2 \pi)^{3/2}}[/itex][itex]\iiint b(\mathbf{k},t)[/itex][itex]e^{i(\mathbf{k} \cdot \mathbf{r}-\omega t)} d \mathbf{k}[/itex] (10.22)
[itex]b(\mathbf{k},t) = \frac{1}{(2 \pi)^{3/2}}[/itex][itex]\iiint[/itex][itex]\psi (\mathbf{k},t) e^{i(\mathbf{k} \cdot \mathbf{r} - \omega t)} d \mathbf{r}[/itex] (10.23)
[itex]d \mathbf{r}=dxdydz[/itex]


The Attempt at a Solution



1.I substituted eq 22 into left-hand side of problem's equation. Then I don't know how to go further. I think there will be some manipulation on the equation but I'm lacking some knowledge how to do it.
 
Last edited:
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Your question is a simple case of Plancherel theorem. What is B equal to, if you're given its Fourier transformation ?
 
rar0308 said:
[itex]b(\mathbf{k},t) = \frac{1}{(2 \pi)^{3/2}}[/itex][itex]\iiint[/itex][itex]\psi (\mathbf{k},t) e^{i(\mathbf{k} \cdot \mathbf{r} - \omega t)} d \mathbf{r}[/itex] (10.23)
[itex]d \mathbf{r}=dxdydz[/itex]
Is this a Fourier transform?
 
Yes. Then what is b equal to ? Can you perform that integration, once you know psi ?
 

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