How Does the Biot-Savart Law Apply to a Right Angle Wire Configuration?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on applying the Biot-Savart Law to a right-angle wire configuration, specifically analyzing the magnetic field (B) generated by a vertical wire segment. The equation used is B = ∫ ([μ0 / 4pi] * I * ds-vector x r-hat) / r^2, with the contributor noting that the horizontal wire does not contribute to the magnetic field. The confusion arises around the limits of integration and the angles θ1 and θ2, which are derived from the geometry of the setup. The final expression for B is simplified to B = ([μ0 / 4pi] * I) / x * (cos θ1 - cos θ2), where θ1 and θ2 are defined in relation to the wire and the point of interest.

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ParoXsitiC
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Homework Statement



http://i.minus.com/1333003834/Q661ScjxBUxkrL2FfmVFPQ/iTEfM3UTAVtTa.png


Homework Equations



B = ∫ ([μ0 / 4pi] * I * ds-vector x r-hat) / r^2

The Attempt at a Solution



I know the horizontal line will not add anything to the magnetic field (B), so focusing on the vertical line.

I take a little bit of length (ds) which I will call dy.

dy x r-hat = dy sin θ
r = sqrt(x^2+y^2)
sin θ = x / r

do all your substitutions and get:

B = ([μ0 / 4pi] * I * x ) ∫ dy / (x^2+y^2)^(3/2)

At this point I am confused on my limits of integration, I know for an infinite long straight wire I use -∞ to ∞.

In my notes I have an example where it goes from -y1 to y2 and comes out with

B = ([μ0 / 4pi] * I ) / x * (cos θ1 - cos θ2)

where θ1 is the angle between -y1 and the point i am finding, and θ2 is 180 - θ1.
This whole θ thing is tripping me up, how did it get there ( I am assuming trig subsitutation). Further more how can I get a grasp on what θ1 would be?

I guess -y1 in my situation is just y, and y2 is 0.

so θ1 = inverse-tan (x/y) and thus θ2 = 180 - inverse-tan (x/y)?
 
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Hi ParoXsitiC! :smile:

(try using the X2 and X2 buttons just above the Reply box :wink:)

(and write arctan or tan-1, not inverse-tan)

(You're rambling a bit :redface:, so I won't answer point-by-point)

θ isn't a substitutuion, it's the actual angle, between the current and the line from the point to P :smile:

You can either do ∫ dy, in which case your limits are the endvalues of y, in this case 0 and ∞

or you can do ∫ dθ, in which case your limits are the endvalues of θ, in this case 0 and π/2.

(btw, can't you just say it's half the value for a whole line?)
 
That makes sense but how did they get to the two cosines mathematically?

I guess my understand is that the formula is a simplified equation that does not include an integral, but I don't understand how it was derived, nor do I understand which angle is taken for θ2
 
ParoXsitiC said:
That makes sense but how did they get to the two cosines mathematically?

oh, cos = adj/hyp (adjacent/hypotenuse)

= y/√(x2 + y2) :smile:

(and θ2 is the angle PYO, where Y = (0,y), as y -> ∞)
 

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