How Does the Biot-Savart Law Apply to a Right Angle Wire Configuration?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the Biot-Savart Law to a right angle wire configuration, specifically focusing on the magnetic field generated by a vertical wire segment while considering the contributions from a horizontal wire segment.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the integration limits for calculating the magnetic field, questioning the setup of angles and the derivation of the cosine terms in the formula. There is discussion about the relationship between the geometry of the problem and the angles involved.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the problem, seeking clarification on the derivation of certain terms and the mathematical steps involved. Some guidance has been offered regarding integration limits and the interpretation of angles, but there is no explicit consensus on the derivation process.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of confusion regarding the limits of integration and the angles used in the calculations, indicating potential gaps in understanding the geometric relationships in the problem setup.

ParoXsitiC
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Homework Statement



http://i.minus.com/1333003834/Q661ScjxBUxkrL2FfmVFPQ/iTEfM3UTAVtTa.png


Homework Equations



B = ∫ ([μ0 / 4pi] * I * ds-vector x r-hat) / r^2

The Attempt at a Solution



I know the horizontal line will not add anything to the magnetic field (B), so focusing on the vertical line.

I take a little bit of length (ds) which I will call dy.

dy x r-hat = dy sin θ
r = sqrt(x^2+y^2)
sin θ = x / r

do all your substitutions and get:

B = ([μ0 / 4pi] * I * x ) ∫ dy / (x^2+y^2)^(3/2)

At this point I am confused on my limits of integration, I know for an infinite long straight wire I use -∞ to ∞.

In my notes I have an example where it goes from -y1 to y2 and comes out with

B = ([μ0 / 4pi] * I ) / x * (cos θ1 - cos θ2)

where θ1 is the angle between -y1 and the point i am finding, and θ2 is 180 - θ1.
This whole θ thing is tripping me up, how did it get there ( I am assuming trig subsitutation). Further more how can I get a grasp on what θ1 would be?

I guess -y1 in my situation is just y, and y2 is 0.

so θ1 = inverse-tan (x/y) and thus θ2 = 180 - inverse-tan (x/y)?
 
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Hi ParoXsitiC! :smile:

(try using the X2 and X2 buttons just above the Reply box :wink:)

(and write arctan or tan-1, not inverse-tan)

(You're rambling a bit :redface:, so I won't answer point-by-point)

θ isn't a substitutuion, it's the actual angle, between the current and the line from the point to P :smile:

You can either do ∫ dy, in which case your limits are the endvalues of y, in this case 0 and ∞

or you can do ∫ dθ, in which case your limits are the endvalues of θ, in this case 0 and π/2.

(btw, can't you just say it's half the value for a whole line?)
 
That makes sense but how did they get to the two cosines mathematically?

I guess my understand is that the formula is a simplified equation that does not include an integral, but I don't understand how it was derived, nor do I understand which angle is taken for θ2
 
ParoXsitiC said:
That makes sense but how did they get to the two cosines mathematically?

oh, cos = adj/hyp (adjacent/hypotenuse)

= y/√(x2 + y2) :smile:

(and θ2 is the angle PYO, where Y = (0,y), as y -> ∞)
 

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