How Is Cp - Cv Calculated for an Ideal Monatomic Gas Using Thermodynamics?

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The calculation of C_p - C_v for an ideal monatomic gas involves using the equation C_p - C_v = [P + (∂U/∂V)_T][(∂V/∂T)_P]. The user initially substituted PV = RT into the internal energy equation, leading to an incorrect differentiation that kept pressure constant instead of temperature. The correct approach requires recognizing that the partial derivative (∂U/∂V)_T should yield a different result, specifically that it equals 0 when temperature is held constant. This misunderstanding led to the erroneous conclusion that C_p - C_v equals 5/2 R instead of the correct value of R. Clarifying the differentiation process resolves the confusion regarding the calculation.
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Homework Statement


[/B]
Use the equation $$C_p - C_v = \left[ P + \left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T\right] \left[ \left( \frac {∂V}{∂T} \right)_P \right]$$ to find ##C_p - C_v## for an ideal monatomic gas.

Homework Equations



##U = \frac {3}{2} RT##
##PV = RT##

The Attempt at a Solution



I substitute ##PV = RT## into the expression for ##U## to get ##U = \frac {3}{2} PV##, therefore

$$\left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T = \frac {3}{2} P$$

Since ##PV=RT ⇒ V = \frac {RT}{P}##,

$$\left( \frac {∂V}{∂T} \right)_P = \frac {R}{P}$$

Therefore ##C_p - C_v = [P + \frac {3}{2} P][\frac {R}{P}] = \frac {5}{2} R## but the real answer is ##C_p - C_v = R##. What have I done wrong? I can't seem to find the mistake.
 
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subzero0137 said:
I substitute ##PV = RT## into the expression for ##U## to get ##U = \frac {3}{2} PV##, therefore

$$\left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T = \frac {3}{2} P$$
The T suffix in
$$\left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T $$
means keeping T constant. In performing the differentiation you appear to have kept P constant instead.
 
haruspex said:
The T suffix in
$$\left( \frac {∂U}{∂V} \right)_T $$
means keeping T constant. In performing the differentiation you appear to have kept P constant instead.

Oh I see. So the partial derivative would be 0?
 
subzero0137 said:
Oh I see. So the partial derivative would be 0?
Yes.
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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