MHB How is Integration by Parts Applied to $\int_{0}^{\pi} x^3 \cos(x) \, dx$?

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The discussion focuses on the application of integration by parts (IBP) to evaluate the integral I = ∫₀^π x³ cos(x) dx. The process involves multiple iterations of IBP, starting with u = x³ and dv = cos(x) dx, leading to the expression I = [x² sin(x)]₀^π - 3∫₀^π x² sin(x) dx. Subsequent applications of IBP simplify the integral further, ultimately yielding the result I = 12 - 3π². The conversation highlights the importance of careful arithmetic in the integration process and notes that the presence of xⁿ suggests the number of IBP iterations required.
karush
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$\Large {S6-7.1.24}$
$$
\displaystyle
I=\int_{0}^{\pi} {x}^{3}\cos\left({x}\right)\,dx=12-3{\pi}^{2} \\
\begin{align}
u& = {{x}^{3}} & dv&=\cos\left({x}\right) \, dx \\
du&={3x^2} \ d{x}& v&={\sin\left({x}\right)}
\end{align} \\
$$
$$
\text{IBP} \displaystyle =uv-\int v\ du \\
\displaystyle{x}^{3}\cdot \sin\left({x}\right)
-\int \sin\left({x}\right) \cdot 3{x}^{2} \ d{x} \\
\begin{align}
u& = {{3x}^{2}} & dv&=\sin\left({x}\right) \, dx \\
du&={6x} \ d{x}& v&={-\cos\left({x}\right)}
\end{align} \\
$$
$$
\displaystyle -3{x}^{2}\cdot \cos\left({x}\right)
+6\int \cos\left({x}\right) \cdot {x} \ d{x} \\
\begin{align}
u& = {x} & dv&=\cos\left({x}\right) \, dx \\
du&={dx} \ d{x}& v&={\sin\left({x}\right)}
\end{align}
$$
$
\text{continued with this one more IBP but didn't get the answer}
$
 
Last edited:
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This is how I would work the problem...

We are given:

$$I=\int_0^{\pi} x^3\cos(x)\,dx$$

Using IBP, I agree the choices should be:

$$u=x^3\,\therefore\,du=3x^2\,dx$$

$$dv=\cos(x)\,dx\,\therefore\,v=\sin(x)$$

And we have:

$$I=\left[x^2\sin(x)\right]_0^\pi-3\int_0^{\pi} x^2\sin(x)\,dx=-3\int_0^{\pi} x^2\sin(x)\,dx$$

Using IBP again, where:

$$u=x^2\,\therefore\,du=2x\,dx$$

$$dv=\sin(x)\,dx\,\therefore\,v=-\cos(x)$$

And we have:

$$I=3\left(\left[x^2\cos(x)\right]_0^{\pi}-2\int_0^{\pi} x\cos(x)\,dx\right)=-3\left(\pi^2+2\int_0^{\pi} x\cos(x)\,dx\right)$$

Using IBP again, where:

$$u=x\,\therefore\,du=dx$$

$$dv=\cos(x)\,dx\,\therefore\,v=\sin(x)$$

And we have:

$$I=-3\left(\pi^2+2\left(\left[x\sin(x)\right]_0^{\pi}-\int_0^{\pi} \sin(x)\,dx\right)\right)=-3\left(\pi^2-2\int_0^{\pi} \sin(x)\,dx\right)=-3\left(\pi^2+2\left[\cos(x)\right]_0^{\pi}\right)=3\left(4-\pi^2\right)=12-3\pi^2$$
 
thank you, I see where i went astray didn't factor correctly.
i seem to be ok with what to do i get killed with simple arithmetic.😰

so when we see a $x^n$ its a hint how many IBP we have to do
 
Last edited:
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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