(If this is hard to read, I could probably do another Jing video running through it... But maybe you could address any number of items where I appear to be confused. I just picked one of your links
http://www.astro.caltech.edu/~george/ay21/eaa/eaa-powspec.pdf and started reading, to the best of my ability; trying to figure out what you're saying.)
So for this Power function P(k) is the Fourier transform of the correlation function. xi(r) and w(theta). Now as for spatial and angular correlation functions xi(r) and w(theta), are they looking at r=0 from our position, and theta =0 in some specific direction? Are they using the orientation of our galaxy, or are they using the orientation of the CMBR dipole?
However, the article also says dP = nbar^2(1+xi(r12))dV1 dV2
dP = \bar n^2(1+\xi(r_{12}))dV_1 dV_2
I'd have to review Fourier transformations; Is that an equivalent definition? Now the idea of a Fourier transform, if I'm not mistaken, is to take something from distance or time domain into a frequency domain. It turns a function which is graphed in terms of time or distance into a function which is graphed in terms of frequency, or wave number.
The correlation function is xi(r)-the spatial distribution or w(theta)-the angular distribution. Now, “the spatial two-point or autocorrelation function is defined as the excess probability, compared with that expected for random distribution, of finding a pair of galaxies at a separation r12.” By “random” do they mean a “uniform random distribution?” And by “probability of finding a pair of galaxies at a separation r12” are they saying, “Given a galaxy at point 1, what is the probability of finding a galaxy at r2” or are they working from a single origin, and expecting to find galaxies in a more-or-less spherical distribution? Another question--on the correlation function itself. I think of “sound” as a causality relation; not a correlation relation. Is this really a sound wave traveling through the universe now, or is it a correlation function that may or may not be due to a sound wave that went through the universe a long, long, long time ago when the universe was significantly denser?
It says that between .1 h
-1 and 10 h
-1 MegaParsec's the spatial correlation function is well described by a power law (5 h
-1/r)^1.8. Unfortunately, the article never tells us what h
-1 actually stands for. There's also not really any explanation for where that came from; though it reminds me of an inverse square law that you might get, either from gravitational effects, or intensity effects--anything that is proportional to the surface area of a sphere at a certain distance from an object or event.
Also, they quickly change their mind, and decide, instead that xi(r) = 1 over 2 Pi times the integral of dk * k^2 P(k) sin (kr) over kr. \xi(r) = \frac{1 }{2 \pi} \int{ dk * k^2 P(k) \frac{\sin(kr)}{kr}}.
I gather that is some kind of representation of an inverse Fourier transform, though I don't fully see the resemblance to the Fourier transformations on Wikipedia. It seems like they have k/r sin(kr) but are fixing it up so there's something that looks like the sinc function in there.
The article says the paradigm is that “small fluctuations in density are amplified by gravity.” That is a qualitative sort of statement, that could mean just about anything. The main thing I'm questioning is their concept of scale--what is a “small” fluctuation in density if you go back in time to where the mean density of the universe in the first nanosecond? A quantum fluctuation in the first nanosecond or microsecond of the universe will expand over the next 13.7 billion years into the entire visible part of the universe.
So yes, essentially that might be what they are saying when they say “one possible explanation being that they are quantum fluctuations boosted to macroscopic scales by INFLATION.” I just don't see why this is in doubt. Given a few carefully chosen, well-reasoned axioms, I would think that this conclusion is virtually inescapable.
Now, the primordial power spectrum, assumed to be P(k) proportional k^n, where n=1 is a popular choice... They've defined the Power spectrum so abstractly, I'm not sure which way is up, but is it a useful interpretation to say that this assumption claims that “sound” in the universe is present equally at all wavelengths? I don't think I have this right, but I'm also in great doubt as to the wisdom of transforming the map of the universe from a spatial description to a wave-number description at all. (By the way, on further thinking, I'm not sure the "popular choice" of assuming that P(k) ~ k really makes any sense. Why should there be any a priori assumption about the distribution of wavelengths of perturbations in the universe, and why would it be distributed in this way?)
My own feeling is that wave-number-based descriptions of the universe are deeply counter-intuitive. It would be rather like trying to find a Bessel function and Legendre Polynomials to describe the surface of the Earth. Of course, you CAN model the Earth this way, but why would you want to? Would it really have any predictive or explanatory power? Could you, from that mapping, then find a useful theory of plate tectonics, volcanism, oceans, etc?
A second difficulty I have with what appears to be the Standard Model, and this discussion of “sound” in general, is that to have what we commonly think of as sound, you need to have a region of gas that is more-or-less in the same inertial reference frame, and has a great enough density . It's not a question of whether it happened, but when. It sounds as though most people who support the standard model are under the impression that we should be able to see evidence of sound passing through the universe now.
I agree that they should be able to see some evidence of sound passing through the universe long ago. When the universe was one hour old, the particles 1 mile away from each other were moving apart at 1 mile per hour. Yes, in that environment, sound might travel quite well, except for a few caveats. (1) we're talking about a fluid so dense that ANY fluctuation is going to result in massive gravitational instability, and (2) We're talking about a fluid that probably doesn't interact in any way similar to the spring-like molecular interactions we're familiar with. And that region would grow in the next 13.7 billion years to a volume on the scale of galaxies and superclusters.
I'm still interested in seeing why they think that Baryonic matter could not have produced what we're seeing, but I think that argument applies only to the early universe when the density was great enough that sound would carry through the plasma.
I think there would have been a time in the universe where the density got low enough when baryons would begin to form (then sound would really begin to flow), and then a time in the universe where the density of those baryons got low enough to become almost a vacuum, and sound basically stopped.
So if I am understanding properly (a big if, at this point) they think that when Baryons formed, Nuclear interactions start becoming a push/pull interaction rather than just pulling; Hooke's Law would have begun to apply en-masse to all the particles, making the system begin carrying sound. But they see some evidence for sound but not enough evidence for sound, so they decided that most of the mass of the universe is nonbaryonic.
You may think I'm trying to construct a straw-man here. If I am, please forgive me. I still mean to just be asking... “What makes you think the dark matter in the universe must be nonbaryonic.” What you've told me is that if it were baryonic, the universe would ring like a bell. What I'm trying to do here is make my best attempt to guess what you mean. I think you must mean that the universe ONCE rang like a bell; when the density was much greater. I'm suggesting that the universe stopped ringing like a bell because it became too diffuse for sound waves to carry through diffuse molecular hydrogen. You seem to be saying that the universe should be ringing still now, except for the presence of nonbaryonic dark matter. Do I have that right?