1. Limited time only! Sign up for a free 30min personal tutor trial with Chegg Tutors
    Dismiss Notice
Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

How is sin(npi/2) = (-1)^((n-1)/2) for odd n?

  1. Sep 19, 2009 #1
    I know the MacLaurin series for sin(x) but can't figure out how this reduces to the above (if it does).
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 19, 2009 #2
    sin(npi/2) is going to be equal to -1 or 1, depending on the value of n, right? So the formula seems plausible. You could prove it through induction.
     
    Last edited: Sep 19, 2009
  4. Sep 19, 2009 #3
    thanks
     
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook




Similar Discussions: How is sin(npi/2) = (-1)^((n-1)/2) for odd n?
  1. 2^n < (n+2)! (Replies: 3)

Loading...