Taylor/Maclaurin series of a function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around obtaining the Maclaurin series for the function f(x) = sin(x²)/x and a similar function f(x) = sin(x²)/2. Participants are exploring the implications of multiplying by 1/x and the necessity of expanding both components in the series.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the need to expand 1/x in the context of the Maclaurin series and question whether it is necessary to generate a series for both components of the function. There is also a consideration of the convergence of the series and the behavior of terms at x=0.

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered clarifications regarding the uniqueness of Taylor series and the conditions under which one function can be expanded while another is multiplied. There is an ongoing exploration of the implications of these points, but no consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the series for 1/x is undefined at x=0, leading to discussions about the range of the function and the behavior of the series near that point.

EEristavi
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Homework Statement


Obtain Maclaurin Series for:
f(x) = sin(x2)/x

Homework Equations


f(x) = ∑f(n)(c) (x-c)n / n! (for Maclaurin c = 0)

The Attempt at a Solution


I know that sin(x2) = x2 - (x2*3/3! +...

from the final answer I see, that this is just multiplied to 1/x.

This bothers me,
doesn't we have to expand 1/x also? Moreover, I see that every term for P(1/x) at x=0 is undefined => range must be (-∞, 0)∪(0, ∞)
 
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EEristavi said:

Homework Statement


Obtain Maclaurin Series for:
f(x) = sin(x2)/2

Homework Equations


f(x) = ∑f(n)(c) (x-c)n / n! (for Maclaurin c = 0)

The Attempt at a Solution


I know that sin(x2) = x2 - (x2*3/3! +...

from the final answer I see, that this is just multiplied to 1/x.

This bothers me,
doesn't we have to expand 1/x also? Moreover, I see that every term for P(1/x) at x=0 is undefined => range must be (-∞, 0)∪(0, ∞)
I don't see what you are talking about. The series you have given
$$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(x^2)^{2n-1}}{(2n-1)!}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{x^{4n-2}}{(2n-1)!}$$ converges absolutely for all ##x## and there are no ##\frac 1 x## terms anywhere.
 
LCKurtz said:
there are no 1x1x\frac 1 x terms anywhere.

Aaah... sorry about that :( I accidentally divided by 2 - not x. I've edited now.
sorry again
 
EEristavi said:
from the final answer I see, that this is just multiplied to 1/x.

This bothers me,
doesn't we have to expand 1/x also?

Taylor series are unique. When you multiply by ##1/x## you get a power series. There's no need to generate a power series for ##1/x## to do this.
 
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So, if I understand correctly:
If I have complex function [e.g. f(x)g(x)] I can expand one of them and multiply to another
 
EEristavi said:
So, if I understand correctly:
If I have complex function [e.g. f(x)g(x)] I can expand one of them and multiply to another

It's only going to work when one of the functions is ##1/x## or ##1/x^2##; or, if one is a polynomial, then that it already the Taylor series. In general, you have to expand both.
 
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Thank you :)
 

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