How is this asymptotic relation?

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the asymptotic relation e^((ln(x))^2) = O(1) as x approaches 0. Participants clarify that for g(x) = O(f(x)), the condition |g(x)| < K|f(x)| must hold with K being finite. The limit of |g(x)/f(x)| approaches infinity as x approaches 0, leading to the conclusion that e^((ln(x))^2) does not satisfy the O(1) condition in this context.

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Homework Statement


e^((ln(x))^2)=O(1)?
as x->0

Homework Equations


g(x)=O(f(x)) => |g(x)|<K|f(x)| as x->0 in this case but can approach any value as desired.
K<infinity

The Attempt at a Solution


We can try numbers for small x but non zero that satisfy the inequality however are we allowed to manipulate infinities? Somehow I think that the equality shouldn't stand.

I know that x^2 does not equal O(x) when x->infinity but does equal when x->0

We can look at it this way, g(x)=O(f(x)) => |g(x)|<K|f(x)| as x->0, K<infinity => lim x->0 |g(x)/f(x)| is finite.
 
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The limit is infinity as x->0. How can this be O(1)?
 

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