How many of a note can we hear problem

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The highest note on the saxophone is 1,568 Hz, and the maximum frequency humans can hear is 20,000 Hz. To determine how many harmonics of the saxophone note can be heard, one can divide 20,000 Hz by 1,568 Hz, resulting in 12 harmonics. Rounding up would exceed the audible range, which is why rounding down is necessary. The discussion emphasizes the importance of understanding harmonic frequencies in relation to human hearing limits.
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The frequency of the highest note on the saxophone is 1,568 Hz.
1. How many harmonics of that note can we hear?
2. How many harmonics of the note one octave below it can we hear?

The book really gives no examples or information on determining number of harmonics, so an explanation of the problem would be great.
 
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AlaskanPow said:
The frequency of the highest note on the saxophone is 1,568 Hz.
1. How many harmonics of that note can we hear?
2. How many harmonics of the note one octave below it can we hear?

The book really gives no examples or information on determining number of harmonics, so an explanation of the problem would be great.
Hello AlaskanPow. Welcome to PF !

What's the highest frequency that a human can hear?
 
20,000 Hz according to my book. Do we do this then ----> 20000Hz/1568Hz?
 
Last edited:
AlaskanPow said:
20,000 Hz according to my book. Do we do this then ----> 20000Hz/1568Hz?
No.

How many times can you double 1568Hz without exceeding 20000Hz ?
 
Well i did the 20000Hz/1568Hz and it gave me the right answer of 12 harmonics. I am not sure why it rounded down like that though.
 
AlaskanPow said:
Well i did the 20000Hz/1568Hz and it gave me the right answer of 12 harmonics. I am not sure why it rounded down like that though.

I had a brain cramp.

Of course 20000Hz/1568Hz is correct.

If you round up, the highest harmonic is grater than 20000Hz .
 
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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