I am not sure how does the integral was did here. More preciselly, How to go from the first line to the second line? Shouldn't it be $$\frac{4 \pi}{(2 \pi)^3} \int _{0} ^{\infty} p^2 e^{ip*r}/(2 E_p)$$ ? (x-y is purelly spatial)
There is a ##\cos(\theta)## in the dot product which brings out the ipr and causes the difference in the exponentials when you integrate over ##d(\cos(\theta))##
for d), I am a bit confused. I have two trains of thoughts here
any thoughts on which answer is correct, and why the other one is incorrect? Both seem like valid solutions to me. Or is the question ambiguous?
thanks