How to prove a set is unbounded

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The discussion centers on proving that the set of all continuous functions from [a, b] to R is unbounded. Participants clarify that to establish unboundedness, a proper definition of the distance function d(f1, f2) is essential, typically using d(f, g) = max_{a≤x≤b} |f(x) - g(x)|. The focus is on demonstrating that for any positive number A, there exist functions in the set such that the distance exceeds A. It is emphasized that proving the set is infinite is trivial; the goal is to show unboundedness. The conversation concludes with a consensus on the need for a clear understanding of the distance metric to address the problem effectively.
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Homework Statement



Suppose I have a set E that contains all continuous function f from [a,b] --> R, I think this is unbounded, but can I prove it?

Homework Equations



d(f1,f2)= sup{f1(x)-f2(x)}

The Attempt at a Solution


I want to show |d(f1,f2)|>M for some M, but I don't know if this is the right direction and how to do it
 
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A set is "unbounded" if, for any positive number A, there exist point p and q in the set such that d(p,q)> A. That, of course, depends on how you measure "distance"- d(p,q).
What is your definition of d(f, g) for f and g in the set of continuous functions from [a, b] to R?

(What ever your d(f,g) is, consider the functions fn(x)= n. for n= 1, 2, 3, ...)
 
But there are no definition of f, that is the point. F will be any continuous function from [a,b] to R. Can I prove this set is infinite?
 
If you think that it is false, you can provide a counterexample.

So, if f : [a, b] \to R and let A = [a, b] is bounded, is it necessarily true that f(A) is bounded?
 
happybear said:
But there are no definition of f, that is the point. F will be any continuous function from [a,b] to R. Can I prove this set is infinite?
Do you mean d, the distance function? There has to be a definition of distance in order to talk about "bounded" or "unbounded". And you don't want to prove the set is infinite (that's trivial), you want to prove it is unbounded, a completely different thing.

Is it possible that you are talking about the set of continuous functions from [a,b] to R? For that, the distance function is most commonly d(f, g)= \max_{a\le x\le b} |f(x)- g(x)|.
 
konthelion said:
If you think that it is false, you can provide a counterexample.

So, if f : [a, b] \to R and let A = [a, b] is bounded, is it necessarily true that f(A) is bounded?
The problem was not to prove that functions in the set are bounded but that the set itself is.
 
HallsofIvy said:
Is it possible that you are talking about the set of continuous functions from [a,b] to R? For that, the distance function is most commonly d(f, g)= \max_{a\le x\le b} |f(x)- g(x)|.
Yes. That is what I meant. And what I want to show is that there are infinitely many functions of f. That is how I interpret the question, since they ask if the set is unbounded. Or do I misunderstand it
 

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