How to Prove d<L>/dt = <N> for a Particle in Potential V(r)?

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The discussion focuses on proving that the rate of change of the expectation value of the orbital angular momentum L for a particle in a potential V(r) equals the expectation value of the torque, expressed as d<L>/dt = <N>, where N = r x (-grad V). Participants explore the application of Ehrenfest's theorem and the use of commutators to derive the necessary equations. They discuss the simplification of terms and the evaluation of commutators involving the Hamiltonian and angular momentum components. The conversation also touches on the implications of spherical symmetry in the potential, leading to the conclusion that d<L>/dt = 0 under such conditions. The thread emphasizes the importance of understanding operator identities and the relationships between the components of angular momentum.
  • #31
ya that is the x component, of r \ X\ (-\nabla V) and then I can simply argue if a add the three components, L_x, L_y, L_z knowing r = x,y,z, I can say \frac{dL}{dt} = r \X\ (- \nabla V)

Wow...that makes total sense... Ty very much for helping me solve the problem, I really appreciate it.
 
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  • #32
Yep, since similar results hold for L_y and L_z. You can just permutate the indices cyclicly (is that a word?)

\vec L is just a operator with 3 components: \vec L=L_x \vec i+L_y\vec j +L_z \vec k, so you can just equate the components of both sides.
 
  • #33
awesome, thanks for the help!

and to show that to show that for a sphyrically symmetric potential \frac{d&lt;L&gt;}{dt} = 0, someone mentioned to me to try this

\frac{d&lt;L&gt;}{dt} = [H,L] + \frac{dh}{dt}

where the right term on the right hand side equals zero becuase the hamiltonian isn't time dependent, and then I guess I am left off where i started in the previous problem. Should I be thinking of this equation, or should I be trying a different approach.
 
  • #34
The equation you derived is general, ofcourse.

\frac{d}{dt}\langle \vec L \rangle = \langle \vec r \times (-\vec \nabla V) \rangle

So try to evaluate the right hand side for the case where V=V(r), r=|\vec r|.

Hint: Use \vec \nabla in spherical coordinates.
 
  • #35
Ah I see!
r \times -\nabla V = r(r \times r)(\frac{-dV}{dr})+ r(r\times \theta)\frac{1}{r}(\frac{-dV}{d\theta})+r(r\times\phi)\frac{1}{rsin\theta}(\frac{-dV}{d\theta})
Where the things getting cross multiplied are the unit vecotrs (i don't know how to put the hats on them) and of course those are partial deriviatives.
The first term has r x r, which is of course 0, and the other two terms have me differentiating V(r) with respect to the two angular coords, so of course they are 0! so the whole thing equals zero!
 
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  • #36
Yep. The quick way of seeing this intuitively is by recalling that \vec \nabla V is the vector which, at eacht point, points in the direction of maximum increase of V. If V is spherically symmetric, what other direction can this be but radially outward? In the tangential direction it must be zero.
So \vec \nabla V(r) points in the direction of \vec r everywhere, so its cross product with \vec r is zero everywhere.
 
  • #37
Actually, you could have used the equation is suggested. The commutator [H,L] is zero, and <dl/dt> is obviously zero. Its a nifty little formula, and its very useful.

- harsh
 

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