1. Limited time only! Sign up for a free 30min personal tutor trial with Chegg Tutors
    Dismiss Notice
Dismiss Notice
Join Physics Forums Today!
The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

How to prove that Cosh(x) = Cos(ix)

  1. Apr 17, 2012 #1
    i know that Cosh(x) = (E^x + E^-x ) / 2

    how do i prove that Cosh(x) = Cos(ix) , where i is the imaginary unit
    similarly Cosh(ix) = Cos(x)

    and Sin(ix) = i Sinh(x)
    similarly Sinh(ix) = i Sin(x)
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 17, 2012 #2
    Do you know any formulas for cosine and sine that relate to exponentials?
     
  4. Apr 17, 2012 #3
    yeah of course Euler's identity
    e^ix = cos(x) + isin(x)
    but i still can't do it :(
     
  5. Apr 17, 2012 #4
    I should have been more clear, sorry. I meant a formula that only involves cosine and exponentials and a formula that only involves sines and exponentials. The cosine formula won't have sines in it and vice versa. Once you have those formulas, this becomes trivial to prove as you'll see.
     
  6. Apr 17, 2012 #5
    Best of all, you can derive these from Euler's identity: write down [itex]e^{ix}[/itex] and [itex]e^{-ix}[/itex] using it, and then add the two equations or subtract them to derive the relevant equations.
     
  7. Apr 17, 2012 #6
    i have those formulas too, but i don't understand how they got them
     
  8. Apr 17, 2012 #7

    mathman

    User Avatar
    Science Advisor
    Gold Member

    e^ix = cos(x) + isin(x)
    e^-ix = cos(x) - isin(x)

    Add to get 2cos(x), subtract to get 2isin(x).

    I presume you can do the rest.
     
  9. Apr 17, 2012 #8
    it's clear now! thanks sir!
     
  10. May 25, 2013 #9
    Easy! Just need a Laplace transformation sheet; then look at the transformation of cos(a*t), it says that L{cos(a*t)}=s/(s^2+a^2). That means that the inverse Laplace transformation of s/(s^2+a^2) is cos(at), right.
    L^(-1){s/(s^2+a^2)}=cos(a*t)

    Then ask yourself... Which is the inverse Laplace transformation of s/(s^2-1)?
    that means your a^2 would be -1 so a=sqrt(-1)=i
    then L^(-1){s/(s^2-1)}=L^(-1){s/(s^2+i)}=cos(i*t)

    Now let do that by partial fractions:
    L^(-1){s/(s^2-1)}=L^(-1){A/(s-1)+B/(s+1)}
    s/(s^2-1)=A/(s-1)+B/(s+1); then
    s/[(s-1)*(s+1)]=A/(s-1)+B/(s+1); then if you multiplie that equation for (s-1)(s+1) you got
    s=A*(s+1)+B*(s-1); then
    s=A*s+A+B*s-B=(A+B)*s+(A-B); now you got a equation system;
    s=(A+B)*s and 0=A-B
    A+B=1 and A-B=0; if you resolve
    A=1/2=B; so
    L^(-1){A/(s-1)+B/(s+1)}=L^(-1){(1/2)/(s-1)+(1/2)/(s+1)}=L^(-1){(1/2)/(s-1)}+L^(-1){(1/2)/(s+1)}=
    (1/2)*L^(-1){1/(s-1)}+(1/2)*L^(-1){1/(s+1)}=(1/2)*(L^(-1){1/(s-1)}+L^(-1){1/(s+1)})

    If you look at the inverse Laplace transformation formula for 1/(s-a) you will see e^(a*t) so
    L^(-1){1/(s-1)}=e^t
    and
    L^(-1){1/(s+1)}=e^-t
    so
    (1/2)*(L^(-1){1/(s-1)}+L^(-1){1/(s+1)})=(1/2)*(e^t+e^-t)=(e^t+e^-t)/2=cosh(t)
    so cos(i*t)=cosh(t)

    It's the same process to proof sen(i*t)=senh(t)
     
Know someone interested in this topic? Share this thread via Reddit, Google+, Twitter, or Facebook




Similar Discussions: How to prove that Cosh(x) = Cos(ix)
  1. Sin x =cosh x (Replies: 12)

Loading...