How to Prove the Lagrange Inversion Theorem?

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The Lagrange Inversion Theorem relates to the Taylor series of the inverse of an analytical function. A user expressed difficulty in proving the theorem using basic algebra and calculus, without resorting to real analysis. The theorem asserts that if f is analytical at x=a, then the inverse function f-1 has a specific Taylor series expansion. The discussion highlights a lack of clear methods or resources for proving this theorem. Overall, the inquiry emphasizes the challenge of proving the theorem without advanced mathematical tools.
AdrianZ
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I encountered this beautiful theorem and then I tried hard to prove it using ordinary algebraic methods and my understanding of calculus without involving real analysis in it but I didn't succeed. The theorem states that if f is an analytical function at some point x=a then f-1 has the following Taylor series:

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How can I prove this formula?
 
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No one knows?
 
There are probably loads of proofs of this online, but I do not want to cheat. Here is my attempt: Convexity says that $$f(\lambda a + (1-\lambda)b) \leq \lambda f(a) + (1-\lambda) f(b)$$ $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (f(a) - f(b))$$ We know from the intermediate value theorem that there exists a ##c \in (b,a)## such that $$\frac{f(a) - f(b)}{a-b} = f'(c).$$ Hence $$f(b + \lambda(a-b)) \leq f(b) + \lambda (a - b) f'(c))$$ $$\frac{f(b + \lambda(a-b)) - f(b)}{\lambda(a-b)}...

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