How to prove this integral is 0 ?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the integral of the function Exp[-Cos[x]]*Cos[x/3] over the interval from 0 to 3*Pi. Participants explore whether this integral is equal to zero and seek analytical proofs to support their claims.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant suggests that numerical results indicate the integral may be zero but seeks an analytical proof.
  • Another participant proposes that the symmetry of the function around the midpoint of the interval leads to cancellation of the integrals over each half.
  • A change of variable is suggested to transform the integral, leading to the conclusion that the integral is zero due to the odd nature of the sine function.
  • Some participants express uncertainty about the implications of the presence of the exponential function in the integrand.
  • There are conflicting views on the symmetry of the graphs of the function on either side of the midpoint, with some asserting they are the same and others questioning this observation.
  • Several participants attempt to provide sketch proofs, indicating that the integral evaluates to zero but acknowledge the need for rigor in their arguments.
  • One participant mentions that Wolfram Alpha suggests the integral is always zero, although they admit this is beyond their understanding.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the analytical proof of the integral being zero. Multiple competing views and uncertainties remain regarding the symmetry and behavior of the function.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note limitations in their arguments, such as the need for more rigorous proof and the unclear impact of the exponential term in the integrand.

qsk
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For this function : Exp[-Cos[x]]*Cos[x/3]], integrated from 0 to 3*Pi. The numerical result suggests that this integral may gives 0. However, I couldn't find a way to analytically show it's 0. Could anyone tell me how to prove this ?
 
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If you look at the graph (analytically) you will see that one side the midpoint of the domain (\frac{3\pi}{2}) is the same as the other with a sign switch. Therefore the integrals over each half cancel.
 
If you make the change of variable u= x- 3\pi/2 (the midpoint of "0 to 3pi") then x= u+ 3\pi/2 so cos(x)= cos(u+ 3\pi/2)= sin(u) and cos(x/3)= cos(u/3+ \pi/2)= -sin(u/3). Of course, dx= du so the integral becomes -\int_{-3\pi/2}^{3\pi/2} e^{sin(u)}sin(u) du. Now the fact that sine is an "odd" function, sin(-x)= -sin(x) should make it clear that the integral is 0.
 
mathman said:
If you look at the graph (analytically) you will see that one side the midpoint of the domain (\frac{3\pi}{2}) is the same as the other with a sign switch. Therefore the integrals over each half cancel.
I know that, but the shape of the two sides looks very different. How can I proof it analytically the integrals of the two sides cancels.
 
This doesn't seem easy to prove. It seems that the definite integral of Exp[-Cos[x]]*Cos[x/n]] from 0 to n*Pi is zero for n integer>=2
 
Equivalently the definite integral of Exp[-Cos[nx]]*Cos[x] from 0 to pi is zero
 
Halls of Ivy, the presence of exp(sin u) makes the conclusion unclear to me. Also I think the integrand should have sin(u/3) not sin u
 
mathman said:
If you look at the graph (analytically) you will see that one side the midpoint of the domain (\frac{3\pi}{2}) is the same as the other with a sign switch. Therefore the integrals over each half cancel.
I took another look and I believe I was wrong. The graphs on the two sides are the same without a sign switch.
 
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mathman said:
I took another look and I believe I was wrong. The graphs on the two sides are the same without a sign switch.
The only axis of symmetry of the graph is the line y = 3kπ with k integer.

http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=+Exp[-Cos[x]]*Cos[x/3]&x=0&y=0
Somehow the part above the y-axis with 0 < x < 3π/2 has the same area as the part below the y-axis with 3π/2 < x < 3π, even tough the shapes are completely different.

BTW, mathworld can't solve the integral symbolically and reports that it is equal to 0 with an error of 10-16
 
  • #10
For ##t \ge 0##, let ##y(t) = \int_0^{3\pi} t^{- cos(x)} \; cos(x/3) \; dx##.

Testing with Wolfram Alpha suggests ##y## is always zero. Needless to say, this is way beyond my knowledge.
 
  • #11
Sketch proof (apologies no latex):

Integral [0,3pi] exp(-cos(x))*cos(x/3) dx. Put y=x/3
= 3 Integral [0,pi] exp(-cos(3y))*cos(y) dy
Expand exp(cos(3y))= Sum [n=0 to inf] (cos(3y))^n / n!)
Now cos(3y)^n can be expressed as a sum of cosines of multiples of 3y
So we have cos(y) [ a cos 3y + b cos 6y + etc]
which equals a cos y cos 3y + b cosy cos 6y + ...
and using the relationship cos (A-B) + cos(A+B) = 2 cosAcosB
we will then have a simple sum of cosines of multiples of y
Sum (n=1 to inf) of a(n) cos (ny)
The integral of this is Sum (n=1 to inf) of a(n)/n sin (ny)
which when evaluated between 0 and pi gives zero.

This needs to be made rigorous, obviously.
 
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  • #12
davidmoore63@y said:
Sketch proof (apologies no latex):

Integral [0,3pi] exp(-cos(x))*cos(x/3) dx. Put y=x/3
= 3 Integral [0,pi] exp(-cos(3y))*cos(y) dy
Expand exp(cos(3y))= Sum [n=0 to inf] (cos(3y))^n / n!)
Now cos(3y)^n can be expressed as a sum of cosines of multiples of 3y
So we have cos(y) [ a cos 3y + b cos 6y + etc]
which equals a cos y cos 3y + b cosy cos 6y + ...
and using the relationship cos (A-B) + cos(A+B) = 2 cosAcosB
we will then have a simple sum of cosines of multiples of y
Sum (n=1 to inf) of a(n) cos (ny)
The integral of this is Sum (n=1 to inf) of a(n)/n sin (ny)
which when evaluated between 0 and pi gives zero.

This needs to be made rigorous, obviously.
Very good. It's a professional answer.
 

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