How to Prove $X$ Has Lebesgue Measure Zero?

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    2017
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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on proving that the set $X$, defined as the subset of $[0,2\pi]$ where the sequence $(\sin(n_k x))_{k = 1}^\infty$ converges for a strictly increasing sequence of natural numbers $(n_k)_{k = 1}^\infty$, has Lebesgue measure zero. The proof involves analyzing the convergence properties of the sine function and applying measure theory principles. The conclusion is that the set of points where this sequence converges is negligible in terms of measure, confirming that $X$ indeed has Lebesgue measure zero.

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  • Understanding of Lebesgue measure theory
  • Familiarity with sequences and convergence in real analysis
  • Knowledge of the properties of the sine function
  • Basic concepts of measure zero sets
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Euge
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Here is this week's POTW:

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Consider a strictly increasing sequence of natural numbers $(n_k)_{k = 1}^\infty$, and suppose $X$ is the subset of $[0,2\pi]$ consisting of all $x$ such that the sequence $(\sin(n_k x))_{k = 1}^\infty$ is convergent. Prove $X$ has Lebesgue measure zero.-----

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Hi MHB community,

Due to illness, I'm posting a solution later than usual. No one answered this week's problem. You can read my solution below.
Let $f(x) = \lim_{k\to \infty} \sin(n_k x)$, for all $x\in X$. By the Riemann-Lebesgue lemma, $\int_X \cos(2n_k x)\, dx \to 0$ as $k \to \infty$. On the other hand, due to the identity $2\sin^2(n_k x) = 1 - \cos(2n_k x)$, the dominated convergence theorem gives $\int_X 2f(x)^2\, dx = \int_X 1\, dx$. Therefore, $f(x) = \pm \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}$ for almost every $x\in X$. Again, by the Riemann-Lebesgue lemma and the dominated convergence theorem, $\int_X f(x)\, dx = 0$. Consequently, $m(X) = 0$.
 

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