How to Show the Integral of a Spherically Symmetric Potential?

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SUMMARY

The discussion focuses on evaluating the integral of a spherically symmetric potential, specifically the expression \int _{all space} V(\vec{r})exp(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r})d\tau. Participants confirm that due to azimuthal and zenithal symmetry, the integral simplifies to 4\pi \int _{0}^{\infty} V(r) r^{2} exp(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r}) dr. However, confusion arises regarding the treatment of the exponential term exp(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r}), with suggestions to align the coordinate system with the z-axis for simplification.

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Homework Statement


Show that for a spherically symmetric potential

[itex]\int _{all space} V(\vec{r})exp(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r})d\tau = \frac{4\pi}{r}\int_{0}^{\infty} V(r) sin(\kappa r)dr[/itex]


The Attempt at a Solution


Given that the potential is spherically symmetric we have azimuthal symmetry and zenithal symmetry, so that the integral reduces to

[itex]\int _{all space} V(\vec{r})exp(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r})d\tau = 4\pi \int _{0}^{\infty}V(r)r^{2}exp(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r})dr[/itex]

From here, I am not sure how to work with the exponential portion. I've thought that perhaps since this is spherically symmetric we can reduce the dot product into [itex]\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r}=kr cos(\theta)[/itex] or something of that nature, but I really don't see how this helps me. If you have any suggestions or references that would help, please let me know. Thanks in advance.
 
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matumich26 said:

Homework Statement


Show that for a spherically symmetric potential

[itex]\int _{all space} V(\vec{r})exp(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r})d\tau = \frac{4\pi}{r}\int_{0}^{\infty} V(r) sin(\kappa r)dr[/itex]
That can't be right. r is a variable of integration, it can't appear outside the integral.

The Attempt at a Solution


Given that the potential is spherically symmetric we have azimuthal symmetry and zenithal symmetry, so that the integral reduces to

[itex]\int _{all space} V(\vec{r})exp(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r})d\tau = 4\pi \int _{0}^{\infty}V(r)r^{2}exp(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r})dr[/itex]
But the [itex]\exp{(i\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r})}[/itex] term spoils that symmetry, doesn't it?

From here, I am not sure how to work with the exponential portion. I've thought that perhaps since this is spherically symmetric we can reduce the dot product into [itex]\vec{k}\cdot\vec{r}=kr cos(\theta)[/itex] or something of that nature, but I really don't see how this helps me. If you have any suggestions or references that would help, please let me know. Thanks in advance.
You might try choosing a coordinate system where k lies along the z-axis, and set up the integral that way.
 

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