How to solve an integral of a gaussian distribution

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integration of a Gaussian distribution, specifically the integral of the form \(\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{(x-a)^{2}}\, dx\). Participants are exploring the convergence and methods to approach this integral.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants question the convergence of the original integral and suggest a corrected form with a negative exponent. Others discuss potential methods involving symmetry and polar coordinates, while one participant expresses confusion about substitution methods.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing various insights and corrections. Some suggest that the integral relates to properties of normal distributions, while others are exploring different approaches to the problem without reaching a consensus.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of a textbook that leaves the integral as an exercise, prompting participants to look up necessary integrals. Additionally, there are corrections regarding the notation and assumptions about the integral's form.

DragonPetter
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Homework Statement


integrate

\int_{-\infty}^\infty\! e ^{(x-a)^{2}}\, dx

Homework Equations



\int \! e^u\, du = e^u + C

The Attempt at a Solution


i just know that du = 2(x-a), but there is no x to make use of substitution, so I am confused on how to go about solving this since I cannot use substitution
 
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EDIT: I'm assuming you mean
<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty\! e ^{-(x-a)^{2}}\, dx<br />​
since what you wrote doesn't converge.Anyway, this is a very tricky integral that requires a trick. By far the best way starts as follows:

First, letting I denote the original integral (after replacing x-a with x), notice that
I = 2\int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx​
by symmetry. Next comes the first trick:
I^2 = 4 \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx = 4 \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-x^{2}}\, dx \int_{0}^\infty\! e ^{-y^{2}}\, dy​
since the x in the integral is just a dummy variable. But then
I^2 = 4\int_0^\infty\int_0^\infty\! e ^{-(x^{2}+y^{2})}\,dx\,dy.​

The traditional method is to at this point switch to polar coordinates, but a better way (I think) involves the substitution y=xu (so dy=xdu):
I^2 = 4\int_0^\infty\int_0^\infty\! e^{-x^2(1+u^2)}x\,dx\,du.​
From here, I think you should be able to figure this out on your own.
 
hmm my textbook is certainly not nice as it leaves this as an exercise with just telling me "(look up any integrals you need)"
and yes, i forgot to include the - sign for the exponential
 
DragonPetter said:
hmm my textbook is certainly not nice as it leaves this as an exercise with just telling me "(look up any integrals you need)"

That's weird.
 
On a wild hunch: this seems to be a traditional type problem in a first mathematical stat or calc-based probability course. If you've seen this (normal density integrating to 1)

<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{\sigma^2}} \, dx = 1<br />

the "trick" is to identify your integrand as part of some normal density and go from there.

of course, the item i have posted could be what the hint "look up any integrals needed" refers to as well.
 
statdad said:
<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{\sigma^2}} \, dx = 1<br />

You mean
<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}} \, dx = 1<br />​
of course
 
foxjwill said:
You mean
<br /> \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi} \sigma} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}} \, dx = 1<br />​
of course

Yes - many thanks for correcting my typing, and more for possibly clearing up a problem for the original poster.
 

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