- #1

Kuhan

- 46

- 0

Does ##(\sin^{-1}\theta)^2 =\sin^{-2}\theta## ?

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- Thread starter Kuhan
- Start date

- #1

Kuhan

- 46

- 0

Does ##(\sin^{-1}\theta)^2 =\sin^{-2}\theta## ?

- #2

alberto7

- 10

- 0

- #3

chief10

- 78

- 0

would be easier to just use the inverse function mate.

- #4

HallsofIvy

Science Advisor

Homework Helper

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To put it simply, "[itex]sin^{-1}(x)[/itex]" for the inverse function is an unfortunate notation!

- #5

Kuhan

- 46

- 0

Thanks! now it makes sense. I used to use ##\sin^{-1}\theta## instead of ##\arcsin\theta## . They just aren't the same, I guess. Basically,

##\sin^{-1}\theta=\csc\theta##

- #6

Kuhan

- 46

- 0

they do use ##\sin^{-1}\theta=\arcsin\theta## in math! wow so confusing!

- #7

Kuhan

- 46

- 0

http://tutorial.math.lamar.edu/Extras/AlgebraTrigReview/InverseTrig.aspx

answers the problem

answers the problem

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