I claim this Improper Integral converges

Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The integral from 1 to infinity of \(\frac{(\cos(\pi x))^{2x}}{x}dx\) does not converge. The discussion reveals that attempts to apply comparison tests with functions like \(\frac{(\cos x)^{2k}}{x}\) were unsuccessful in establishing convergence. The integral can be bounded by \(\int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x}dx\), which diverges, indicating that the original integral also diverges. The behavior of the integral over periods of \(\cos(\pi x)\) for large \(n\) suggests that the oscillatory nature of the cosine function does not contribute to convergence.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of improper integrals
  • Familiarity with comparison tests in calculus
  • Knowledge of oscillatory functions and their integrals
  • Basic logarithmic properties and divergence concepts
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of improper integrals in calculus
  • Learn about the comparison test for convergence of integrals
  • Investigate the behavior of oscillatory integrals, particularly involving trigonometric functions
  • Explore advanced techniques for evaluating integrals, such as integration by parts and substitution methods
USEFUL FOR

Mathematics students, calculus instructors, and anyone interested in the convergence of improper integrals and oscillatory functions.

Rudeboy37
Messages
11
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Does the integral from 1 to infinity of ([(Cos[Pi x])^(2x)]/x)dx converge?

Homework Equations



N/A

The Attempt at a Solution



I claim it converges (based on how small the values of the function get when x is not an integer), but I'm not really sure how to rigorously justify it. It doesn't look fun (or possible) to integrate, so I was trying to do it by a comparison of some sort, but that didn't pan out particularly well (I couldn't get functions like ((cosx)^2k)/x to not diverge or justify that they do converge). Any help or ideas? Thanks
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Note:

[tex] \int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos^{2x}\pi x}{x}dx\leqslant\left|\int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos^{2x}\pi x}{x}dx\right|\leqslant\int_{1}^{\infty}\left|\frac{\cos^{2x}\pi x}{x}\right| dx[/tex]

as [tex]|\cos\pi x|\leqslant 1[/tex], we have:

[tex] \int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{\cos^{2x}\pi x}{x}dx\leqslant\int_{1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{x}dx =\left[\log x\right]_{1}^{\infty}[/tex]

So it may not converge.
 
You can show it converges. Estimate the integral over periods of the cos(pi*x). For example, what's the behavior of the integral of cos(pi*x)^(2*n) for x from 0 to 1 for large n?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
4K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
12K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K