I need a hand with this integral? probably not even that difficult?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral \(\int e^{-\frac{r}{R}} \sin\left(\frac{qr}{h}\right) dr\) from \(r=0\) to \(r=\infty\). Participants are exploring methods to solve this integral, which involves concepts from calculus and integration techniques.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts integration by parts and substitution but encounters complications, leading to incorrect results. Some participants suggest revisiting the integration by parts method with different choices for \(u\) and \(dv\). Others question the validity of the results obtained and explore the imaginary part of a related function.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively discussing various approaches to tackle the integral, with some providing hints and suggestions for substitutions and integration techniques. There is a recognition of the challenges faced, but no consensus has been reached on a definitive method or solution.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the results of the integration attempts, particularly concerning the behavior of the integral as it approaches infinity. Participants are also navigating the complexities of integration by parts without arriving at a clear resolution.

jeebs
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Hi,
I need to evaluate [tex]\int e\stackrel{-(r/R)}{}sin(qr/h)dr[/tex] between r=0 and r=[tex]\infty[/tex] but I keep getting stuck.

I hae tried integrating by parts but the integral just keeps getting more complicated, and I have tried substituting in sin(x) = (1/2i)(e^ix - e^-ix) but that gave me the result that the whole thing is equal to infinity, which I know to be wrong.

can anybody suggest some sort of method or substitution that I could use?
this is driving me up the wall now.
cheers.
 
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jeebs said:
and I have tried substituting in sin(x) = (1/2i)(e^ix - e^-ix) but that gave me the result that the whole thing is equal to infinity, which I know to be wrong.

And yet it should have worked... Did you find an antiderivative for [tex]e^{-\frac r R}\sin\left(\frac{qr}{h}\right)[/tex] ?
 
Your first approach would have worked if you chose the right things for u and dv, and if you had done integration by parts a second time.

For the first integration by parts, choose u = e-Ar and dv = cos(Br)dr. For the sake of simplicity, A = 1/R and B = q/h.

That should give you an integral with e-Ar and sin(Br). Perform integration by parts a second time, with u = e-Ar and dv = sin(Br)dr. This second integration by parts will give you an integral with e-Ar and cos(Br), which is the same as what you started with. At this point you will have your original integral on the left side, and some expression plus a multiple of your original integral on the right side.

Bring both integral terms to one side and solve algebraically for your integral.
 
Hi jeebs! :smile:

(have an integral: ∫ and an infinity: ∞ and try using the X2 tag just above the Reply box :wink:)

Hint: what is e-r/Rsin(qr/h) the imaginary part of? :wink:
 
Let [itex]u=e^{r/R}[/itex] and [itex]dv= sin(qr/h)dr[/itex]. Then [itex]du= e^{r/R}/R dr[/itex] and [itex]v= -(h/q) cos(qr/h)[/itex].

[itex]\int e^{r/R}sin(qr/h)dr= -(h/q)e^{r/R}cos(qr/h)+ (h/(qR))\int e^{r/R}cos(qr/h)dr[/itex]. Now do it again, again letting [itex]u= e^{r/R}[/itex] and [itex]dv= sin(qr/h)r[/itex]. You will get a term involving [itex]\int e^{r/R}sin(qr/h)dr[/itex] again. Do not integrate by parts a third time. Instead, solve the equation, algebraically, for [itex]\int e^{r/R}sin(qr/h)dr[/itex].
 

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