I'd like to see your point of view

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During the Modern period, Newton described planetary motion through the concept of force, while Leibniz criticized this approach, suggesting it implied an "occult quality" that lacked full understanding. Leibniz advocated for a mechanical explanation, arguing that movement is due to an "impressed impetus." He countered Newton's ideas with his vortex theory, proposing that vortices are responsible for planetary motion. The discussion raises questions about the intelligibility of Newton's explanation, inviting insights from those more experienced in physics. Engaging with these foundational concepts can enhance understanding of classical mechanics.
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During the Modern period, planetary motion was described by Newton through force. Leibniz thought Newton was turning planetary motion to an "occult quality", as something not fully intelligible. Leibniz viewed the proper explanation as being completely mechanical, that only by an "impressed impetus" can an object move. As his antithesis, Leibniz proposed the vortex theory as being responsible for planetary motion.

This is a very brief preface, but do you believe that Newton's explanation of planetary force is intelligible? I am beginning my studies in physics and find its progression fascinating. I am interested to read responses from those who have been in physics much longer than I.
 
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krtica said:
do you believe that Newton's explanation of planetary force is intelligible?
Yes, which part of it confuses you?
 
Hello! Let's say I have a cavity resonant at 10 GHz with a Q factor of 1000. Given the Lorentzian shape of the cavity, I can also drive the cavity at, say 100 MHz. Of course the response will be very very weak, but non-zero given that the Loretzian shape never really reaches zero. I am trying to understand how are the magnetic and electric field distributions of the field at 100 MHz relative to the ones at 10 GHz? In particular, if inside the cavity I have some structure, such as 2 plates...
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