(Improper) Integral -2x/(1+x^2) dx from -INF to INF

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SUMMARY

The integral of the function -2x/(1+x^2) from negative infinity to infinity is classified as divergent. The user attempted to evaluate the integral using limits and substitution, ultimately finding that the Cauchy principal value is zero, as confirmed by tools like Maxima and Wolfram Alpha. However, the integral does not converge to a finite value, which is a crucial distinction in improper integrals. The discussion highlights the importance of understanding the difference between convergence and the principal value in the context of improper integrals.

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  • Understanding of improper integrals and their convergence criteria.
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Homework Statement


Consider the integral

INT -2x/(1+x^2) dx FROM -INF TO INF (The attached TheIntegral.jpg file shows this in a more aesthetically-pleasing manner.)

If the integral is divergent, state that it is so. Otherwise, evaluate the integral.


Homework Equations


Integration.
U substitution.


The Attempt at a Solution


I turned the integral the problem gives into:

lim t-> inf INT -2x/(1+x^2) dx FROM -t TO t

Letting u = 1+x^2, du/dx = 2x, dx = du/2x

Lower limit: u = 1 + (-t)^2 = 1 + t^2, Upper limit: u = 1 + (t)^2 = 1 + t^2
lim t-> inf INT -1/u du FROM (1 + t^2) TO (1 + t^2)
lim t-> inf [-ln|u|] FROM (1 + t^2) TO (1 + t^2) = 0

Using Wolfram Alpha, I know the integral is divergent but, when I use Maxima, I get Principal Value: 0 (and, I don't know what means, but it's what I get).

In addition to me agreeing with the value that Maxima gives, I also used another piece of software called Kmplot which is how I got the image I attached in this thread, TheGraph.jpg, which shows a symmetric graph with areas that, to my intuition at least, seem to cancel out.

Could someone please explain to me why this integral is a divergent integral rather than one that converges to a value of 0?
 

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Physics news on Phys.org
Improper integral ##\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\,dx## is converged if both integrals ##\int_{-\infty}^af(x)\,dx## and ##\int_a^\infty f(x)\,dx## are convergent. Cauchy principal value is a limit ##\lim\limits_{a\to\infty}\int_{-a}^af(x)\,dx## and it may exist even if ##\int_{-\infty}^\infty f(x)\,dx## is divergent.
 
I posted a reply, but I deleted it and am rethinking what I said...
 
Here is the Wolfram Alpha link.:
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integrate+-2x/(1+x^2)+dx+from+-inf+to+inf

Looking at the above link again, it does say that the integral equals to zero below "Cauchy Principal Value:", which is beyond what I'm currently learning, but it also says that the integral does not converge.

According to the answer from the problem I am doing, the integral is in fact diverging (but, I still don't understand why).
 
Szynkasz, that was the information I needed!

Thank you both! :)
 

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