Improper Integral Convergence: Find Value of 0 to Infinity (Xe-x)dX

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the improper integral from 0 to infinity of the function (Xe^(-x)). Participants are exploring whether the integral converges or diverges and, if it converges, what its exact value might be.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to evaluate the integral using limit properties and integration by parts. Questions arise regarding the validity of their approaches and the interpretation of limits, particularly concerning the behavior of terms as they approach infinity.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with each other's reasoning, questioning assumptions, and providing guidance on evaluating limits and antiderivatives. There is a mix of interpretations and attempts to clarify the mathematical steps involved, but no explicit consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of confusion regarding the handling of limits and the nature of indeterminate forms in the context of the integral's evaluation. Participants also express interest in the formatting of equations within the forum.

lcam2
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Homework Statement


Find if the improper integral converges or diverges; If converges find its exact value.

Integral from 0 to infinity of (Xe-x)dX

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Using limit properties, i found that the integral was zero.
Does it make sense that the integral converges to zero?? I don't understand.
 
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lcam2 said:

Homework Statement


Find if the improper integral converges or diverges; If converges find its exact value.

Integral from 0 to infinity of (Xe-x)dX

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Using limit properties, i found that the integral was zero.
Does it make sense that the integral converges to zero?? I don't understand.

No, the integral doesn't converge to zero. Show us what you did and we can steer you in the right direction.
 
If you mean that
\lim_{x \to \infty} x e^{-x} = 0
then yes. But that does not mean that
\int_0^\infty x e^{-x} \, dx = 0
In fact it is not, because x e^{-x} \not\equiv 0.

Try integration by parts?
 
0∫∞(xe^(x ))dx This is the original promblem

And this is what i did
0∫∞(xe^(x ))dx = lim┬(b→∞) 0∫b(xe^x )dx =lim┬(b→∞) (-be^(-b)-e^(-b) )= lim┬(b→∞) (-b)/e^b =0
 
You forgot the lower boundaries in your partial integration. You get
\lim_{b \to 0} \left. (-x e^{-x} - e^{-x} \right|_{x = 0}^\infty
which is
(-b e^{-b} + 0 e^{-0}) - (e^{-b} - e^{-0})
 
Ok, i see.
Now evaluating the lower limits my new limit is

lim(b→∞) (-b=1)/(e^b)+1

separating the limits and using l'hospital's, my new limits is 1
Is that correct?? Can i separate the limits?? I am not sure if i can do that.
Thanks for all the help
 
lcam2 said:
Ok, i see.
Now evaluating the lower limits my new limit is

lim(b→∞) (-b=1)/(e^b)+1
? What does this mean?

Your antiderivative turns out to be -xe-x - e-x, which you evaluate at b and at 0
(-b e^{-b} - e^{-b} ) - (-0e^{-0} - e^{-0})

\lim_{b \to \infty} (-b e^{-b} - e^{-b} ) - (-0e^{-0} - e^{-0}) = 1

The first two terms approach zero in the limit, so you're left with 1.

lcam2 said:
separating the limits and using l'hospital's, my new limits is 1
Is that correct?? Can i separate the limits?? I am not sure if i can do that.
Thanks for all the help
 
Mark44 said:
? What does this mean?

In particular, what is the = sign doing inside the brackets?
 
Mark44 said:
? What does this mean?

Your antiderivative turns out to be -xe-x - e-x, which you evaluate at b and at 0
(-b e^{-b} - e^{-b} ) - (-0e^{-0} - e^{-0})

\lim_{b \to \infty} (-b e^{-b} - e^{-b} ) - (-0e^{-0} - e^{-0}) = 1

The first two terms approach zero in the limit, so you're left with 1.

I'm confused with this term in the above expression:
<br /> -b e^{-b}<br />
when you plug in infinity for b...would you get -infinity * 0...which is undefined or an indeterminate form?
 
Last edited:
  • #10
rjs123 said:
I'm confused with this term in the above expression:
<br /> -b e^{-b}<br />
when you plug in infinity for b...would you get -infinity * 0...which is undefined or an indeterminate form?

Here's where we get the idea of growth and decay. e^(-b) decays to 0 much "faster" than b grows to infinity. I believe it's usually proven using L'Hopital's rule.
 
  • #11
CompuChip said:
In particular, what is the = sign doing inside the brackets?

I'm sorry, it was supposed to be (-b-1), there should not be = inside the brackets.
Thanks, your explanation really helped me!

Actually I have a question, can i write equations in Physics forums, it was very hard to write the equation, Does physics forums have an equation bar?? or something like that??
 
  • #12
There's LaTeX, but there isn't an equation bar. If you click Go Advanced, you get an extended menu bar with buttons for doing exponents (X2) and subscripts (X2). There's a \Sigma button that pops open a list of commonly used LaTeX tags.
 

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