MHB Improper integrals (Comparison Test)

Click For Summary
The discussion focuses on using the comparison test to determine the convergence of the improper integral from 2 to infinity of 1/(1-x^2). The initial analysis suggests that the integral diverges based on comparisons made with -1/(2-2x). Participants clarify that if one integral converges, the negative of that integral also converges, as both represent finite values. The conversation emphasizes that changing the limits of integration results in a negative sign but does not affect the convergence of the integral. Ultimately, the key takeaway is the relationship between the convergence of integrals and their negative counterparts.
renyikouniao
Messages
41
Reaction score
0
Use the comparison test to find out whether or not the following improper integral exist(converge)?
integral(upper bound:infinity lower bound:2) 1/(1-x^2) dx

Here's my solution for 3),but I think something went wrong

For all x>=2
0<=-(2-2x)<=-(1-x^2) that means: 0<=-1/(1-x^2)<=-1/(2-2x)

and

integral (upper bound : infinity.lower bound : 2)
-1/(2-2x)=1/2lim(t->infinity)[In(2-2t)-In(-2)]

According to Comparison Test
If ) the integral -1/(2-2x) is convergent,then the integral -1/(1-x^2) is convergent.

But the integral -1/(2-2x) is divergent...so I don't know what to do next...
 
Physics news on Phys.org
$$x^2-1=(x-1)(x+1) \geq \sqrt{x} \cdot x $$

for all $$x \geq 3$$ .
 
ZaidAlyafey said:
$$x^2-1=(x-1)(x+1) \geq \sqrt{x} \cdot x $$

for all $$x \geq 3$$ .

Can I state:if the integral (upper bound: a lower bound: b )is convergent/divergent.
then the negative integral (upper bound: a lower bound: b )is convergent/divergent.For ex:If I prove 1/(x^2-1) is convergent,then I can say 1/(1-x^2) is convergent too.
 
renyikouniao said:
Can I state:if the integral (upper bound: a lower bound: b )is convergent/divergent.
then the negative integral (upper bound: a lower bound: b )is convergent/divergent.For ex:If I prove 1/(x^2-1) is convergent,then I can say 1/(1-x^2) is convergent too.

Yes , of course . For an integral to be convergent that means it has a value that is not infinite . So if we have the following

$$\int^b_a f(x) \, dx = C$$ converges then

$$\int^a_b f(x) \, dx = -\int^b_a f(x) \, dx = - C $$

Since the integral has a finite value , it obviously converges because this is what it means to converge .

If you are talking about positive functions then the integral means a finite area under the function on the interval [a,b] . Clearly the area will still be finite if we change the limits to be $$[b,a]$$ but since we are traveling on the opposite side it will be with a negative sign .
 
Last edited: