Infinite Derivative of the Zeta Function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the behavior of the zeta function and its derivatives when extended to the complex plane. The original poster questions whether the zeta function approaches zero as the number of its derivatives approaches infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the implications of the zeta function being analytic everywhere except at 1, questioning the meaning of the original poster's inquiry regarding the limit of derivatives. There is a discussion about the convergence of the sequence of derivatives and the nature of the zeta function's Taylor series.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the question, clarifying the original inquiry and exploring the convergence of derivatives. Some have provided observations about the behavior of the zeta function's derivatives, but no consensus has been reached on the original question.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the zeta function's analyticity and its behavior at points other than 1, which may influence the discussion. The original poster's question may also relate to a specific problem from a textbook, suggesting potential constraints or context that are not fully articulated.

seanhbailey
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Homework Statement



When extended to the complex plain, does the zeta function approach zero as the number of derivatives of it approaches infinity?

Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

 
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Could someone please help? I really need an answer.
 
I don't understand the question. When extended to the entire complex plane, the zeta function is analytic everywhere, except at 1. Being analytic implies that it's infinitely differentiable everywhere (again, except at 1). What do you mean by "does the zeta function approach zero as the number of derivatives of it approaches infinity?"

Petek
 
In other words, does the infinith derivative of the zeta function equal 0?
 
I think you're saying that, suppose s [itex]\neq[/itex] 1. Then, does the sequence [itex](\zeta^{(n)}(s))[/itex] converge to zero? If that's what you mean, I'll have think about it. Let me know if you mean something else.

Petek
 
Yes, that is what I mean.
 
Sorry, can't figure it out. The only result I could get was the trivial observation that

[tex]\frac{\zeta^{(n)}(s)}{n!}[/tex]

converges to zero for all s [itex]\neq[/itex] 1. That just follows from the fact that zeta is analytic at those points, and hence has a Taylor series whose coefficients are as above. If this is a problem from a book, you might want to check if the previous problem provides a clue. Sometimes authors will do that.

Petek
 

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