Infinite series Σ 1/(ln(e^n+e^-n)) = Σ 1/ln(n)?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence or divergence of the infinite series \(\sum \frac{1}{\ln(e^{n}+e^{-n})}\) and its potential comparison to \(\sum \frac{1}{\ln(n)}\). Participants are exploring the behavior of logarithmic functions and series as \(n\) approaches infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to relate \(\sum \frac{1}{\ln(e^{n}+e^{-n})}\) to \(\sum \frac{1}{\ln(n)}\) based on their behavior as \(n\) increases. Others question the validity of this comparison, citing examples of divergent and convergent series.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing insights and counterexamples regarding the comparison of series. Some suggest alternative comparisons and explore the implications of different logarithmic expressions, while others seek to clarify the conditions under which the comparison test can be applied.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the limitations of the comparison test and the specific behavior of the series involved. There is an emphasis on understanding the relationships between the terms in the series and their growth rates.

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Homework Statement



Prove whether \sum \frac{1}{ln(e^{n}+e^{-n})} converges or diverges


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



(second post today... sorry, I just want to make sure I'm getting this right)


Since e^{n}+e^{-n} goes to infinity as n goes to infinity, could I say that \sum \frac{1}{ln(e^{n}+e^{-n})} is like \sum \frac{1}{ln(n)}?

I know that \sum \frac{1}{ln(n)} is definitely divergent because it is > 1/n and I can use the comparison test.

But could I argue that \sum \frac{1}{ln(e^{n}+e^{-n})} and \sum \frac{1}{ln(n)} are essentially the same?
 
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No, you can't say that... for example n^2 goes to infinity as n goes to infinity, sum of 1/n diverges and sum of 1/n^2 converges.

But you can notice that e^n + e^{-n} < e^n + e^n ...
 
hamster143 said:
No, you can't say that... for example n^2 goes to infinity as n goes to infinity, sum of 1/n diverges and sum of 1/n^2 converges.

But you can notice that e^n + e^{-n} < e^n + e^n ...

Right, so \frac{1}{ln(e^{n}+e^{-n})} > \frac{1}{ln(e^{n}+e^{n})} = \frac{1}{ln(2)+ln(e^{n})} = \frac{1}{ln(2)+n}

\sum \frac{1}{ln(2)+n} certainly looks like it diverges... but how would I prove that?

comparison test wouldn't work since it's not quite true that \sum \frac{1}{ln(2)+n} > 1/n
 
If you could show that ∑ 1/ln(en + e-n) is greater than ∑ 1/ln(n) then you could compare them and show that the first one diverges. Otherwise, it won't help you.

Try another comparison with en + e-n < e2n
 
DPMachine said:
comparison test wouldn't work since it's not quite true that \sum \frac{1}{ln(2)+n} &gt; 1/n

Does \sum \frac{1}{n+1} = 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + ... converge or diverge?
 
n + 1 < 2n
1/(n + 1) > 1/(2n)

Σ 1/(2n) = (1/2)Σ 1/n diverges, so Σ 1/(n + 1) diverges.
 
Bohrok said:
n + 1 < 2n
1/(n + 1) > 1/(2n)

Σ 1/(2n) = (1/2)Σ 1/n diverges, so Σ 1/(n + 1) diverges.

Exactly, and also Σ 1/(n+1) = (Σ 1/n) - 1, another way to see that it diverges. And 1/(ln(2)+n) > 1/n+1.
 

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