Infinite square well, Probability of measurement of particle's energy

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a problem related to quantum mechanics, specifically the infinite square well and the calculation of the probability of measuring a particle's energy. Participants are exploring the concepts of wavefunctions, expansion coefficients, and their relation to probability in quantum systems.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to apply the expansion postulate and integrate the wavefunction to find probabilities. Some participants question the method of obtaining the expansion coefficient and its implications for calculating probability.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the concepts, with some providing guidance on the use of orthonormal bases and integration to find coefficients. There is an ongoing exploration of the correct approach to the problem, but no consensus has been reached.

Contextual Notes

The original poster indicates difficulties with specific parts of the problem and mentions previous successful attempts, suggesting a structured homework assignment with multiple components.

machofan
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Homework Statement



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Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution



I have managed to do the first 3 parts of the questions. The last two 4 markers are the ones I am having difficulties with. I have tried using the expansion postulate which states the wavefunction is equal to the sum of the expansion coefficient "a" and the eigenfunction. Then by squaring the expansion coefficient, this should provide the probability.

The wavefunction from part 3) was found to be 2Acos(kx), and I've tried integrating this by squaring it, but I notice that's not the right way to go about this problem.

Any help would be much appreciated.
 
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As you said, the wavefunction Φ may be expanded in terms of a linear combination of the ψ(n). The {ψ} form an orthonormal basis. What happens if you take <ψ(1)|Φ>?
 
tman12321 said:
As you said, the wavefunction Φ may be expanded in terms of a linear combination of the ψ(n). The {ψ} form an orthonormal basis. What happens if you take <ψ(1)|Φ>?

If you take ψ and Φ, then integrate from a to -a, would that provide the expansion coefficient a_{n}? In which case, by squaring this coefficient, this would provide the probability?
 
This is a basic fact in quantum mechanics. You should consult your textbook so that you understand this, because you are bound to see it over and over again.
 

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